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Certified Medical Assistant Certification Exam

Administrative Duties & Pharmacology Practice Questions

150 practice questions with detailed explanations — aligned to the Certified Medical Assistant Certification Exam.

Master Administrative Duties & Pharmacology to boost your score on the Certified Medical Assistant Certification Exam. Each question below mirrors the style and difficulty of real exam questions, complete with detailed explanations so you understand the why behind every answer. Work through all 150 questions, review any that trip you up, and use the related topics below to round out your preparation.

  1. Q1.Which controlled substance schedule includes drugs with the highest accepted medical use but also the highest potential for abuse?

    A.Schedule I
    B.Schedule II
    C.Schedule III
    D.Schedule IV
    BSchedule II

    Explanation: Schedule II controlled substances have a high potential for abuse but have accepted medical uses. Examples include oxycodone (OxyContin), fentanyl, morphine, and Adderall (amphetamine). Schedule I drugs (heroin, LSD) have no accepted medical use. Schedule III–V drugs have progressively lower abuse potential. Medical assistants must understand DEA scheduling for proper prescription handling.

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  2. Q2.What does the medical abbreviation 'prn' mean?

    A.Every night at bedtime
    B.By mouth
    C.As needed
    D.Immediately
    CAs needed

    Explanation: PRN (from Latin 'pro re nata') means 'as needed.' It indicates that the medication or treatment should be administered when required rather than on a fixed schedule. Other common abbreviations: QD = once daily, BID = twice daily, TID = three times daily, QID = four times daily, AC = before meals, PC = after meals, HS = at bedtime, STAT = immediately.

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  3. Q3.Under HIPAA, which of the following is considered Protected Health Information (PHI)?

    A.De-identified medical records with no patient identifiers
    B.General health education pamphlets
    C.A patient's name combined with their medical diagnosis
    D.Aggregate statistical health data
    CA patient's name combined with their medical diagnosis

    Explanation: Protected Health Information (PHI) under HIPAA is any individually identifiable health information. This includes any data that connects a patient's identity (name, address, SSN, DOB, phone, etc.) with their health condition, treatment, or payment information. De-identified data, general pamphlets, and aggregate statistics without individual identifiers are not considered PHI.

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  4. Q4.Which ICD coding system is currently used in the United States for diagnosis coding?

    A.ICD-9-CM
    B.ICD-10-CM
    C.ICD-11
    D.CPT-4
    BICD-10-CM

    Explanation: ICD-10-CM (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification) has been the required diagnosis coding system in the US since October 1, 2015. It replaced ICD-9-CM and provides more specificity with up to 7-character codes. CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes are used for procedures, not diagnoses. ICD-11 is used by WHO globally but not yet mandated in the US.

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  5. Q5.A patient receives an injection of penicillin and within minutes develops hives, hypotension, and difficulty breathing. What is this reaction called and what is the first-line treatment?

    A.Serum sickness; treated with antihistamines
    B.Anaphylaxis; treated with epinephrine (1:1000) IM
    C.Allergic rhinitis; treated with corticosteroids
    D.Contact dermatitis; treated with topical hydrocortisone
    BAnaphylaxis; treated with epinephrine (1:1000) IM

    Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening systemic allergic reaction. Classic signs include urticaria (hives), angioedema, bronchospasm, hypotension, and cardiovascular collapse — onset is usually within minutes of exposure. The first-line treatment is epinephrine 1:1000 IM administered in the anterolateral thigh (0.3–0.5 mg for adults). Call 911 immediately. Antihistamines and corticosteroids are adjunct therapy, not primary treatment.

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