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EMT National Registry Exam

Cardiology Practice Questions

110 practice questions with detailed explanations — aligned to the EMT National Registry Exam.

  1. Q1.Blood travels from the right ventricle to the:

    A.Left Atrium
    B.Aorta
    C.Pulmonary Artery
    D.Vena Cava
    CPulmonary Artery

    Explanation: The Right Ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood through the Pulmonary Artery to the lungs.

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  2. Q2.The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR (1 or 2 rescuers) is:

    A.15:2
    B.30:2
    C.5:1
    D.Continuous
    B30:2

    Explanation: For adults, the ratio is always 30:2 until an advanced airway is placed.

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  3. Q3.The compression-to-ventilation ratio for 2-rescuer CPR on a CHILD or INFANT is:

    A.30:2
    B.15:2
    C.5:1
    D.10:1
    B15:2

    Explanation: For children/infants, 2 rescuers use 15:2 to provide more oxygen/ventilations (since pediatric arrest is often respiratory). 1 rescuer still uses 30:2.

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  4. Q4.The proper depth of chest compressions for an infant is:

    A.1 inch
    B.1.5 inches (approx 1/3 depth)
    C.2 inches
    D.2.4 inches
    B1.5 inches (approx 1/3 depth)

    Explanation: Infant compression depth is 1.5 inches (4 cm) or 1/3 the AP diameter of the chest. Adults are 2-2.4 inches.

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  5. Q5.Where should AED pads be placed on an adult?

    A.Upper right chest and lower left chest
    B.Upper left chest and lower right chest
    C.Center of chest and back
    D.Both on the left side
    AUpper right chest and lower left chest

    Explanation: Standard placement is Upper Right (below clavicle) and Lower Left (side of ribs below nipple line) to direct current through the heart.

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  6. Q6.What is the primary pacemaker of the heart under normal conditions?

    A.AV Node
    B.Purkinje Fibers
    C.SA Node (Sinoatrial)
    D.Bundle of His
    CSA Node (Sinoatrial)

    Explanation: The SA node, located in the right atrium, is the heart's natural pacemaker, firing at 60-100 beats per minute.

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  7. Q7.The heart muscle receives its oxygen supply during:

    A.Systole (contraction)
    B.Diastole (relaxation)
    C.Atrial kick
    D.Ventricular depolarization
    BDiastole (relaxation)

    Explanation: Unlike other organs, the myocardium is perfused during diastole when the aortic valve closes and blood backflows into the coronary arteries.

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  8. Q8.You are treating a 50-year-old male with chest pain. He has a history of angina and carries nitroglycerin. His BP is 90/60. You should:

    A.Administer the nitroglycerin
    B.Withhold the nitroglycerin
    C.Give aspirin only
    D.Call medical control for permission
    BWithhold the nitroglycerin

    Explanation: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that lowers blood pressure. It is contraindicated if the systolic BP is below 100 mmHg (or 90 mmHg depending on local protocol, but 90 is generally the absolute floor).

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  9. Q9.Which of the following cardiac rhythms is 'shockable' by an AED?

    A.Asystole
    B.Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
    C.Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)
    D.Sinus Rhythm
    CVentricular Fibrillation (VF)

    Explanation: VF (chaotic quivering) and Pulseless VT (rapid regular rhythm) are shockable. Asystole (flatline) and PEA (organized rhythm without a pulse) are NOT shockable.

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  10. Q10.When performing CPR on an adult, you should allow for full chest recoil to:

    A.Prevent rib fractures
    B.Allow the heart to refill with blood
    C.Increase the rate of compressions
    D.Reduce fatigue
    BAllow the heart to refill with blood

    Explanation: Full recoil creates negative pressure in the chest, pulling venous blood back into the heart (preload). Without recoil, cardiac output drops significantly.

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  11. Q11.A 65-year-old female complains of weakness, nausea, and sweating. She denies chest pain. You suspect:

    A.Indigestion
    B.Flu
    C.Silent Myocardial Infarction (MI)
    D.Stroke
    CSilent Myocardial Infarction (MI)

    Explanation: Women, elderly patients, and diabetics often present with 'atypical' MI symptoms (weakness, nausea, dyspnea) rather than classic crushing chest pain.

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  12. Q12.The dosage for Aspirin in a patient with suspected Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) is:

    A.81 mg
    B.160-325 mg (2-4 baby aspirin)
    C.650 mg
    D.1000 mg
    B160-325 mg (2-4 baby aspirin)

    Explanation: Standard protocol is 162-324 mg (typically 4 chewable 81mg tablets). Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation (clot growth).

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  13. Q13.Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium?

    A.Pulmonary Artery
    B.Pulmonary Vein
    C.Aorta
    D.Vena Cava
    BPulmonary Vein

    Explanation: The Pulmonary Veins are the only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood (returning from the lungs to the heart).

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  14. Q14.You witness a 12-year-old collapse during a baseball game. He is pulseless and apneic. You should:

    A.Perform 2 minutes of CPR before calling 911
    B.Immediately attach the AED and analyze
    C.Call his parents
    D.Give rescue breaths only
    BImmediately attach the AED and analyze

    Explanation: For a *witnessed* arrest in a child/adolescent (especially during sports), suspect sudden cardiac arrest (Commotio Cordis). Immediate defibrillation is the priority. For *unwitnessed* pediatric arrest, perform 2 mins of CPR first (hypoxia is more likely).

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  15. Q15.The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale evaluates which three signs?

    A.Facial droop, Arm drift, Abnormal speech
    B.Pupils, Grip strength, Sensation
    C.Headache, Nausea, Dizziness
    D.Blood pressure, Pulse, Respiration
    AFacial droop, Arm drift, Abnormal speech

    Explanation: FAST: Facial droop (smile), Arm drift (hold arms out), Speech (repeat a sentence). If any 1 is abnormal, probability of stroke is 72%.

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  16. Q16.A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) differs from a stroke in that:

    A.Symptoms resolve completely within 24 hours
    B.It is caused by a bleed, not a clot
    C.It causes permanent damage
    D.It only affects the face
    ASymptoms resolve completely within 24 hours

    Explanation: A TIA ('mini-stroke') is a temporary blockage. Symptoms mimic a stroke but resolve on their own without permanent infarction. It is a major warning sign of impending stroke.

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  17. Q17.Right-sided Heart Failure (Cor Pulmonale) typically presents with:

    A.Pulmonary edema (crackles)
    B.Jugular Vein Distention (JVD) and pedal edema
    C.Hypotension
    D.Pink frothy sputum
    BJugular Vein Distention (JVD) and pedal edema

    Explanation: When the right side fails, blood backs up into the body (systemic circulation), causing JVD and swelling in the legs/feet. Left-sided failure causes backup into the lungs (pulmonary edema).

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  18. Q18.The primary cause of cardiac arrest in children is:

    A.Congenital heart defects
    B.Respiratory failure
    C.Trauma
    D.Sepsis
    BRespiratory failure

    Explanation: Unlike adults (cardiac cause), children usually arrest due to progressive respiratory failure/hypoxia or shock.

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  19. Q19.You are performing CPR. You feel a 'pop' and suspect you have broken a rib. You should:

    A.Stop CPR immediately
    B.Continue CPR with less force
    C.Continue CPR ensuring proper hand placement
    D.Ventilate only
    CContinue CPR ensuring proper hand placement

    Explanation: Rib fractures are a common complication of effective CPR. Do not stop. Re-verify hand placement (center of chest) and continue. The priority is perfusion.

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  20. Q20.When using an AED on an infant (<1 year), you should prefer:

    A.Adult pads
    B.Manual defibrillator
    C.Pediatric dose-attenuating pads
    D.Do not shock infants
    CPediatric dose-attenuating pads

    Explanation: Use pediatric pads if available. If not, use adult pads (anterior-posterior placement) so they don't touch. Do not delay defibrillation.

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  21. Q21.After a successful resuscitation (ROSC), the patient remains unconscious. You should:

    A.Hyperventilate to lower CO2
    B.Maintain SpO2 between 94-99% and treat hypotension
    C.Give more epinephrine
    D.Stop ventilating
    BMaintain SpO2 between 94-99% and treat hypotension

    Explanation: Post-cardiac arrest care focuses on optimizing oxygenation (avoid hyperoxia) and maintaining blood pressure (systolic >90) to perfuse the brain.

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  22. Q22.Which medication is contraindicated if the patient has taken medications for erectile dysfunction (e.g., Viagra/Cialis) within the last 24-48 hours?

    A.Aspirin
    B.Oxygen
    C.Nitroglycerin
    D.Albuterol
    CNitroglycerin

    Explanation: Both Nitroglycerin and ED drugs (PDE-5 inhibitors) are vasodilators. Combining them causes a synergistic, profound, and potentially fatal drop in blood pressure.

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  23. Q23.Cardiogenic shock is caused by:

    A.Low blood volume
    B.Massive vasodilation
    C.Pump failure (heart muscle damage)
    D.Infection
    CPump failure (heart muscle damage)

    Explanation: Cardiogenic shock occurs when the heart muscle is so damaged (e.g., from a massive MI) that it cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.

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  24. Q24.You are treating a patient with a Left Ventricular Assist Device (LVAD). The patient is unresponsive and apneic. You assess for a pulse and:

    A.Find a strong radial pulse
    B.Find a weak carotid pulse
    C.May not be able to feel a pulse even if the device is working
    D.Will hear a normal heartbeat
    CMay not be able to feel a pulse even if the device is working

    Explanation: LVADs are continuous flow pumps. Patients often do not have a palpable pulse or a measurable blood pressure, even when alive. Assess perfusion by skin color, mental status, and listen for the 'hum' of the pump.

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  25. Q25.The most common symptom of a heart attack (MI) is:

    A.Left arm pain
    B.Jaw pain
    C.Substernal chest pressure/pain
    D.Back pain
    CSubsternal chest pressure/pain

    Explanation: While radiation to the arm/jaw is common, the most frequent complaint is crushing pressure or pain in the center of the chest (substernal).

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  26. Q26.Which valve prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle?

    A.Tricuspid Valve
    B.Mitral Valve
    C.Pulmonic Valve
    D.Aortic Valve
    DAortic Valve

    Explanation: The Aortic Valve separates the Left Ventricle from the Aorta.

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  27. Q27.An Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) often presents with:

    A.Crushing chest pain
    B.Tearing abdominal/back pain and a pulsating mass
    C.Headache
    D.Leg swelling
    BTearing abdominal/back pain and a pulsating mass

    Explanation: AAA is a weakening of the aortic wall. As it expands or dissects, patients describe 'tearing' pain radiating to the back. A pulsating abdominal mass may be felt (do not palpate vigorously!).

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  28. Q28.The correct hand placement for chest compressions on an adult is:

    A.Left side of the chest over the heart
    B.Lower half of the sternum (center of chest)
    C.Top of the sternum
    D.Xiphoid process
    BLower half of the sternum (center of chest)

    Explanation: Compressions must be centered on the lower half of the sternum to compress the ventricles efficiently. Avoid the xiphoid process to prevent liver injury.

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  29. Q29.A patient in cardiac arrest has a pacemaker implanted in their upper right chest. You should place the AED pad:

    A.Directly over the pacemaker
    B.At least 1 inch away from the pacemaker
    C.On the back
    D.Do not use the AED
    BAt least 1 inch away from the pacemaker

    Explanation: Do not place pads directly over a device (pacemaker/ICD) as it blocks the current and can burn the skin. Place the pad at least 1 inch to the side.

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  30. Q30.You respond to a 70-year-old male with slurred speech and right-sided weakness. The symptoms started 1 hour ago. This patient is a candidate for:

    A.High-dose Aspirin
    B.Fibrinolytic (clot-busting) therapy
    C.Nitroglycerin
    D.Glucose
    BFibrinolytic (clot-busting) therapy

    Explanation: If the stroke is ischemic and within the time window (usually <3-4.5 hours), fibrinolytic drugs can dissolve the clot. Immediate transport to a Stroke Center is critical. Do NOT give aspirin (risk of hemorrhage).

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  31. Q31.Which artery is palpated to check a pulse in an unresponsive infant?

    A.Carotid
    B.Radial
    C.Brachial
    D.Femoral
    CBrachial

    Explanation: In infants (<1 year), the brachial artery (upper arm) is easiest to feel. Carotids are hard to find due to short/fat necks.

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  32. Q32.Sudden Cardiac Arrest (SCA) differs from a Heart Attack (MI) in that:

    A.SCA is an electrical problem; MI is a plumbing (blockage) problem
    B.SCA is painful; MI is not
    C.SCA always happens in sleep
    D.They are the same thing
    ASCA is an electrical problem; MI is a plumbing (blockage) problem

    Explanation: MI is a blockage of blood flow causing tissue death. SCA is a malfunction of the electrical system causing the heart to stop beating unexpectedly.

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  33. Q33.What is the maximum time you should interrupt chest compressions (e.g., for breaths or rhythm check)?

    A.5 seconds
    B.10 seconds
    C.15 seconds
    D.30 seconds
    B10 seconds

    Explanation: Interruptions destroy perfusion pressure. Keep pauses <10 seconds.

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  34. Q34.Angina Pectoris occurs when:

    A.The heart muscle dies
    B.Oxygen demand exceeds supply during exertion (ischemia)
    C.A valve ruptures
    D.The aorta tears
    BOxygen demand exceeds supply during exertion (ischemia)

    Explanation: Angina is chest pain caused by reversible ischemia. It typically happens during exertion and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin. MI pain does not resolve.

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  35. Q35.Hypertensive Crisis is defined as a blood pressure usually exceeding:

    A.140/90
    B.160/100
    C.180/120
    D.200/100
    C180/120

    Explanation: Systolic >180 or Diastolic >120 is considered a crisis, posing immediate risk of stroke or organ damage.

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  36. Q36.You are treating a patient with a suspected MI. Aspirin is given to:

    A.Relieve pain
    B.Lower blood pressure
    C.Prevent platelets from clumping and making the blockage worse
    D.Dissolve the clot
    CPrevent platelets from clumping and making the blockage worse

    Explanation: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent. It stops the clot from growing. It is NOT a painkiller (at this dose) or a thrombolytic (clot buster).

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  37. Q37.Which cardiac rhythm looks like a chaotic, wavy line with no QRS complexes?

    A.Sinus Tachycardia
    B.Ventricular Tachycardia
    C.Ventricular Fibrillation
    D.Asystole
    CVentricular Fibrillation

    Explanation: Ventricular Fibrillation (VF) is disorganized electrical activity. The ventricles quiver and do not pump.

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  38. Q38.Syncope (fainting) is typically caused by:

    A.A seizure
    B.A temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain
    C.Low blood sugar
    D.Stroke
    BA temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain

    Explanation: Syncope is a transient loss of consciousness due to global cerebral hypoperfusion (low blood flow). Patients usually recover quickly once flat.

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  39. Q39.While attempting to ventilate a patient in cardiac arrest, you meet resistance and the chest does not rise. You should:

    A.Push harder
    B.Suction the airway
    C.Reposition the airway and try again
    D.Perform a finger sweep
    CReposition the airway and try again

    Explanation: Airway obstruction or improper positioning is the most common cause. Reposition first. If that fails, assume Foreign Body Airway Obstruction and check mouth/perform chest compressions.

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  40. Q40.A patient complains of a 'tearing' pain in his back between his shoulder blades. His blood pressures are significantly different in each arm. You suspect:

    A.Myocardial Infarction
    B.Aortic Dissection
    C.Pulmonary Embolism
    D.Muscular strain
    BAortic Dissection

    Explanation: Aortic Dissection involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta. Unequal pulses/BP and tearing back pain are hallmark signs.

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  41. Q41.The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:

    A.Bundle of His
    B.Sinoatrial (SA) Node
    C.Atrioventricular (AV) Node
    D.Purkinje Fibers
    BSinoatrial (SA) Node

    Explanation: The SA node is the primary pacemaker, initiating the electrical impulse that spreads through the atria to the AV node.

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  42. Q42.You are treating a patient with chest pain. He has taken 3 doses of nitroglycerin prior to your arrival. His blood pressure is 100/60. You should:

    A.Administer a 4th dose
    B.Do not administer any more nitroglycerin
    C.Administer aspirin only
    D.Wait 5 minutes and reassess
    BDo not administer any more nitroglycerin

    Explanation: Most protocols limit nitroglycerin to 3 doses max. Additionally, a systolic BP of 100 is borderline; giving more risks severe hypotension.

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  43. Q43.Beck's Triad, indicating Cardiac Tamponade, consists of:

    A.Hypertension, Bradycardia, Irregular respirations
    B.Hypotension, JVD, Muffled heart sounds
    C.Hypotension, Tachycardia, Flat neck veins
    D.Fever, Chills, Sweating
    BHypotension, JVD, Muffled heart sounds

    Explanation: Cardiac Tamponade (fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart) restricts filling, causing low BP (Hypotension), backup of blood (JVD), and fluid insulation (Muffled sounds).

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  44. Q44.The proper rate of chest compressions for a cardiac arrest patient of ANY age is:

    A.80-100 per minute
    B.100-120 per minute
    C.120-140 per minute
    D.At least 60 per minute
    B100-120 per minute

    Explanation: Current guidelines recommend 100-120 compressions/minute to maximize coronary perfusion pressure.

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  45. Q45.While using an AED, the device prompts 'Check Electrodes'. You should:

    A.Press the shock button
    B.Press the pads firmly to the chest
    C.Replace the battery
    D.Start CPR
    BPress the pads firmly to the chest

    Explanation: Poor contact due to sweat or hair is the most common cause. Press pads down firmly. If that fails, shave hair or replace pads.

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  46. Q46.A 55-year-old male is in cardiac arrest. Bystanders have been performing CPR for 5 minutes. You arrive and set up the AED. It analyzes and advises 'No Shock'. You should:

    A.Check a carotid pulse
    B.Resume chest compressions immediately
    C.Analyze again
    D.Ventilate for 2 minutes
    BResume chest compressions immediately

    Explanation: Do not delay compressions to check a pulse after a 'No Shock' advisory. The patient likely has Asystole or PEA, which requires high-quality CPR to perfuse the heart.

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  47. Q47.Which of the following side effects is common after administering Nitroglycerin?

    A.Hypertension
    B.Headache
    C.Bradycardia
    D.Dry mouth
    BHeadache

    Explanation: Nitroglycerin causes systemic vasodilation. Dilation of cerebral vessels often causes a throbbing headache.

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  48. Q48.In the context of CPR, 'Recoil' refers to:

    A.The force of the compression
    B.Allowing the chest to return to its normal position between compressions
    C.The shock from the AED
    D.The patient vomiting
    BAllowing the chest to return to its normal position between compressions

    Explanation: Full recoil is critical to allow the heart chambers to refill with blood before the next compression pushes it out.

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  49. Q49.Which vessel supplies the heart muscle itself with blood?

    A.Coronary arteries
    B.Aorta
    C.Vena Cava
    D.Pulmonary veins
    ACoronary arteries

    Explanation: The coronary arteries branch off the base of the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium. Blockage here causes an MI.

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  50. Q50.You are treating a patient with severe chest pain. BP is 110/70. HR is 90. SpO2 is 93%. You should administer oxygen via:

    A.Non-rebreather at 15 LPM
    B.Nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM
    C.BVM
    D.Venturi mask
    BNasal cannula at 2-4 LPM

    Explanation: For ACS (Acute Coronary Syndrome), oxygen is titrated to maintain SpO2 >94%. High-flow oxygen can cause vasoconstriction and worsen injury if the patient isn't hypoxic. A cannula is appropriate to bring 93% up to 94%.

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  51. Q51.Pulsus Paradoxus (a drop in BP during inhalation) is a sign of:

    A.Cardiac Tamponade or severe Asthma
    B.Stroke
    C.Myocardial Infarction
    D.Hypertension
    ACardiac Tamponade or severe Asthma

    Explanation: In tamponade, the heart is compressed. Inhalation increases thoracic pressure, further compressing the heart and dropping systolic BP by >10 mmHg.

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  52. Q52.You are transporting a patient with chest pain. He suddenly becomes unconscious. You check for a pulse and find none. The monitor shows Sinus Rhythm. This condition is called:

    A.Ventricular Fibrillation
    B.Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
    C.Asystole
    D.Artifact
    BPulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)

    Explanation: PEA is the presence of organized electrical activity on the monitor without a palpable pulse (mechanical capture). Treat with CPR (not shockable).

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  53. Q53.Atherosclerosis is best defined as:

    A.Hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to plaque buildup
    B.Weakening of the arterial wall
    C.Inflammation of the veins
    D.Clotting of the blood
    AHardening and narrowing of the arteries due to plaque buildup

    Explanation: Atherosclerosis is the buildup of cholesterol/calcium plaques inside arteries, restricting flow and leading to CAD/MI/Stroke.

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  54. Q54.Which patient is the highest priority for transport?

    A.55-year-old male, 140/90 BP, chest pressure relieved by rest
    B.60-year-old female, indigestion, diaphoresis, BP 100/60
    C.24-year-old female, palpitations, HR 110, BP 120/80
    D.70-year-old male, chronic atrial fibrillation, HR 80
    B60-year-old female, indigestion, diaphoresis, BP 100/60

    Explanation: The 60-year-old female presents with atypical MI symptoms (indigestion/sweating) and relative hypotension. This is a potential active MI. The 55-year-old likely has stable angina (relieved by rest).

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  55. Q55.Nitroglycerin is administered via which route?

    A.Oral (swallowed)
    B.Sublingual (under the tongue)
    C.Intramuscular
    D.Inhalation
    BSublingual (under the tongue)

    Explanation: SL administration allows rapid absorption into the bloodstream via the mucous membranes, bypassing digestion.

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  56. Q56.You are performing CPR on a child. An AED arrives with only adult pads. You should:

    A.Use the adult pads, placing one on the center of the chest and one on the back
    B.Perform CPR only; do not use the AED
    C.Cut the pads to size
    D.Use one pad only
    AUse the adult pads, placing one on the center of the chest and one on the back

    Explanation: If pediatric pads/attenuator are unavailable, use adult pads. Place them anterior-posterior (front/back) so they do not touch or overlap. Shock is better than no shock.

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  57. Q57.Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?

    A.Right Atrium
    B.Right Ventricle
    C.Left Atrium
    D.Left Ventricle
    DLeft Ventricle

    Explanation: The Left Ventricle pumps blood against high pressure to the entire body (systemic circulation), requiring the most muscle mass.

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  58. Q58.A Commotio Cordis event occurs when:

    A.A blunt blow to the chest occurs during a specific millisecond of the heart cycle, triggering VF
    B.The heart is bruised
    C.The aorta ruptures
    D.The pericardium fills with blood
    AA blunt blow to the chest occurs during a specific millisecond of the heart cycle, triggering VF

    Explanation: Often seen in sports (baseball/hockey), a blow to the chest during the repolarization phase (T-wave) can disrupt the rhythm and cause sudden cardiac arrest (VF). Immediate AED is curative.

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  59. Q59.To prevent fatigue and maintain compression quality, rescuers should switch roles:

    A.Every 5 cycles (2 minutes)
    B.Every 10 cycles (5 minutes)
    C.Only when tired
    D.Never
    AEvery 5 cycles (2 minutes)

    Explanation: Compressor fatigue sets in quickly, reducing depth and rate. Switch every 2 minutes (or 5 cycles of 30:2) to maintain quality.

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  60. Q60.Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for Aspirin?

    A.A patient with a history of asthma
    B.A patient taking blood thinners (Coumadin)
    C.A patient with active stomach ulcer bleeding
    D.A patient with a headache
    CA patient with active stomach ulcer bleeding

    Explanation: Active GI bleeding is a major contraindication. While blood thinners are a precaution, active bleeding is the hard stop. Asthma is generally not a contraindication unless there is a specific aspirin allergy.

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  61. Q61.The tricuspid valve is located between the:

    A.Right Atrium and Right Ventricle
    B.Left Atrium and Left Ventricle
    C.Right Ventricle and Pulmonary Artery
    D.Left Ventricle and Aorta
    ARight Atrium and Right Ventricle

    Explanation: The Tricuspid valve (Right side) separates the RA and RV. The Mitral/Bicuspid valve (Left side) separates the LA and LV.

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  62. Q62.Ischemia is defined as:

    A.Tissue death
    B.Lack of oxygen to tissue due to restricted blood flow
    C.Excessive bleeding
    D.High blood pressure
    BLack of oxygen to tissue due to restricted blood flow

    Explanation: Ischemia is reversible hypoxic injury (like Angina). Infarction is irreversible tissue death (like MI).

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  63. Q63.A patient is unresponsive with a suspected stroke. You find him slumped in a chair, snoring. Your FIRST action is:

    A.Check a blood sugar
    B.Apply oxygen
    C.Open the airway
    D.Perform a stroke assessment
    COpen the airway

    Explanation: ABC priority. Snoring indicates airway obstruction by the tongue. You must open the airway (head-tilt chin-lift) before assessing sugar or stroke scale.

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  64. Q64.Which of the following findings is most consistent with Left-Sided Heart Failure?

    A.Crackles (Rales) in the lungs
    B.Pedal Edema
    C.Ascites
    D.Jugular Vein Distention
    ACrackles (Rales) in the lungs

    Explanation: Left heart failure backs up into the lungs (Pulmonary Edema = Crackles). Right heart failure backs up into the body (JVD, Pedal Edema).

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  65. Q65.You are attempting to take a blood pressure on a patient with a LVAD (Left Ventricular Assist Device). You hear no Korotkoff sounds. This is:

    A.A sign of imminent death
    B.Expected, as LVADs produce continuous flow
    C.A sign of equipment failure
    D.A reason to start CPR
    BExpected, as LVADs produce continuous flow

    Explanation: LVADs push blood continuously rather than in beats. Most patients will not have a palpable pulse or audible BP. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is used instead.

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  66. Q66.The AED advises a shock. You should:

    A.Press the shock button immediately
    B.Ensure everyone is clear of the patient, then press shock
    C.Check a pulse first
    D.Wait for the paramedics
    BEnsure everyone is clear of the patient, then press shock

    Explanation: Safety first. Visually and verbally clear the patient ('Clear!') to prevent accidental shock to rescuers before pressing the button.

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  67. Q67.A 40-year-old male complains of a 'fluttering' sensation in his chest. He is alert and oriented. Pulse is 160 and regular. BP is 130/80. This rhythm is likely:

    A.Ventricular Tachycardia
    B.Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)
    C.Sinus Bradycardia
    D.Asystole
    BSupraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

    Explanation: SVT is a rapid, regular rhythm originating above the ventricles, often causing palpitations (fluttering). He is stable (good BP, alert).

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  68. Q68.Hypoperfusion is another term for:

    A.Shock
    B.Hypertension
    C.Stroke
    D.Infection
    AShock

    Explanation: Shock is defined as inadequate tissue perfusion (hypoperfusion), where oxygen delivery does not meet metabolic demand.

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  69. Q69.Which of the following mimics a stroke (stroke mimic)?

    A.Hypoglycemia
    B.Myocardial Infarction
    C.Asthma
    D.Appendicitis
    AHypoglycemia

    Explanation: Low blood sugar can cause confusion, slurred speech, and one-sided weakness (hemiparesis). Always check glucose in stroke patients.

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  70. Q70.The postictal phase of a seizure is characterized by:

    A.Muscle rigidity
    B.Confusion and lethargy
    C.Rapid eye movement
    D.Hyperactivity
    BConfusion and lethargy

    Explanation: After the convulsions stop, the brain is exhausted. The patient is typically confused, sleepy, or combative (postictal) for 5-30 minutes.

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  71. Q71.You are performing CPR on an adult. The patient vomits. You should:

    A.Continue CPR
    B.Turn the patient to the side, sweep/suction the mouth, then resume CPR
    C.Stop CPR and intubate
    D.Suction while continuing compressions
    BTurn the patient to the side, sweep/suction the mouth, then resume CPR

    Explanation: Aspiration is fatal. You must clear the airway immediately. Turn the patient (log roll), clear the vomit, then return to supine and resume compressions.

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  72. Q72.A patient with a BP of 220/120 complains of a severe 'thunderclap' headache and ringing in the ears. You suspect:

    A.Hemorrhagic Stroke / Hypertensive Crisis
    B.Migraine
    C.Sinus infection
    D.Ischemic Stroke
    AHemorrhagic Stroke / Hypertensive Crisis

    Explanation: Sudden, severe headache ('worst of life') with extreme hypertension suggests a bleed (subarachnoid hemorrhage) or hypertensive crisis.

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  73. Q73.Dependent lividity (pooling of blood) and rigor mortis are definitive signs of:

    A.Shock
    B.Reversible death
    C.Biological death (Do not resuscitate)
    D.Hypothermia
    CBiological death (Do not resuscitate)

    Explanation: These are signs of irreversible death. CPR should not be initiated.

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  74. Q74.The valve located between the left ventricle and the aorta is the:

    A.Mitral Valve
    B.Tricuspid Valve
    C.Aortic Valve
    D.Pulmonic Valve
    CAortic Valve

    Explanation: The aortic valve controls blood flow out of the heart into the aorta.

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  75. Q75.Which pulse should be assessed in a conscious adult trauma patient?

    A.Carotid
    B.Radial
    C.Femoral
    D.Popliteal
    BRadial

    Explanation: For conscious adults, assess the radial pulse first. If undetectable, move to carotid. For unconscious adults, check carotid first.

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  76. Q76.The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for TWO-rescuer CPR on an infant is:

    A.30:2
    B.15:2
    C.5:1
    D.10:1
    B15:2

    Explanation: For infants and children, the ratio changes from 30:2 (single rescuer) to 15:2 (two rescuers) to provide more frequent ventilations, as pediatric arrest is often respiratory in origin.

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  77. Q77.You are applying AED pads to a patient with a medication patch (e.g., Nitroglycerin) on the upper right chest. You should:

    A.Place the pad directly over the patch
    B.Remove the patch with gloved hands and wipe the skin
    C.Place the pad at least 1 inch away from the patch
    D.Move the patch to the arm
    BRemove the patch with gloved hands and wipe the skin

    Explanation: Patches can block current or cause burns. Remove the patch (wear gloves to avoid absorbing the medication yourself), wipe the residue, and apply the pad.

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  78. Q78.Which part of the heart's electrical conduction system delays the impulse to allow the ventricles to fill?

    A.SA Node
    B.AV Node
    C.Bundle of His
    D.Purkinje Fibers
    BAV Node

    Explanation: The AV (Atrioventricular) node holds the electrical signal briefly (0.1 sec) to ensure the atria have finished contracting and emptying blood into the ventricles before the ventricles contract.

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  79. Q79.A 60-year-old male is in cardiac arrest. He has been submerged in a swimming pool. You should:

    A.Shock him while he is in the water
    B.Pull him out of the water and dry the chest before applying pads
    C.Apply pads immediately without drying
    D.Perform CPR only
    BPull him out of the water and dry the chest before applying pads

    Explanation: Water conducts electricity. Shocking a wet patient or one in a puddle can arc the current across the skin (reducing effectiveness) or shock the rescuers. Remove from water and dry the chest.

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  80. Q80.When performing chest compressions on an adult, you should compress to a depth of:

    A.At least 1 inch
    B.At least 2 inches (5 cm), but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)
    C.At least 3 inches
    D.1/3 the depth of the chest
    BAt least 2 inches (5 cm), but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)

    Explanation: Current guidelines specify 2-2.4 inches for adults. Less is ineffective; more risks injury.

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  81. Q81.The defining characteristic of unstable angina vs. stable angina is:

    A.Unstable angina occurs at rest or does not resolve with nitro/rest
    B.Unstable angina is less painful
    C.Stable angina causes permanent damage
    D.There is no difference
    AUnstable angina occurs at rest or does not resolve with nitro/rest

    Explanation: Stable angina is predictable (e.g., happens with exercise, goes away with rest). Unstable angina is unpredictable, occurring at rest or worsening in frequency/severity, indicating an impending MI.

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  82. Q82.Cardiac Output is calculated as:

    A.Stroke Volume × Heart Rate
    B.Blood Pressure × Heart Rate
    C.Respiratory Rate × Tidal Volume
    D.Systolic - Diastolic Pressure
    AStroke Volume × Heart Rate

    Explanation: Cardiac Output (CO) is the volume of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. It equals the amount pumped per beat (Stroke Volume) times the beats per minute (Heart Rate).

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  83. Q83.Diastolic blood pressure represents:

    A.The pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts
    B.The pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest/refilling
    C.The pressure in the veins
    D.The pressure in the lungs
    BThe pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest/refilling

    Explanation: Systolic is the pressure during contraction (pumping). Diastolic is the residual pressure during relaxation (filling).

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  84. Q84.You are treating a patient with a suspected stroke. Their blood glucose is 40 mg/dL. You should:

    A.Administer oral glucose or glucagon immediately
    B.Transport to a stroke center immediately without treating the sugar
    C.Administer aspirin
    D.Wait for ALS
    AAdminister oral glucose or glucagon immediately

    Explanation: Hypoglycemia mimics stroke. You must rule out/treat low sugar first. If symptoms resolve after glucose, it was not a stroke. Treating the reversible cause is the priority.

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  85. Q85.The primary action of Aspirin in ACS is to:

    A.Dilate coronary arteries
    B.Inhibit platelet aggregation
    C.Break down clots
    D.Reduce pain
    BInhibit platelet aggregation

    Explanation: Aspirin makes platelets 'slippery', preventing them from clumping together and making the thrombus (clot) larger.

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  86. Q86.The preferred method for defibrillation in an infant is:

    A.Manual defibrillator
    B.AED with pediatric attenuator
    C.AED with adult pads
    D.Precordial thump
    AManual defibrillator

    Explanation: A manual defibrillator (ALS skill) allows precise dosing (2-4 J/kg). If unavailable, an AED with pediatric attenuator is next best. If that fails, adult AED pads.

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  87. Q87.Which of the following is a component of the 'Chain of Survival'?

    A.Early Access/Recognition
    B.Early CPR
    C.Early Defibrillation
    D.All of the above
    DAll of the above

    Explanation: The Chain of Survival includes: Recognition/Activation of EMS -> Early CPR -> Early Defibrillation -> Advanced Life Support -> Post-Cardiac Arrest Care.

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  88. Q88.A patient is unresponsive. You check for a pulse for at least:

    A.5 seconds, but no more than 10
    B.2 seconds
    C.15 seconds
    D.30 seconds
    A5 seconds, but no more than 10

    Explanation: Pulse checks should not delay compressions. Take at least 5 seconds to be sure, but never more than 10 seconds.

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  89. Q89.Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) is:

    A.Always pulseless
    B.Always pulsatile
    C.Can be pulseless or have a pulse
    D.A slow rhythm
    CCan be pulseless or have a pulse

    Explanation: VT is a rapid rhythm originating in the ventricles. If the rate is fast enough, the heart cannot fill, and the patient loses their pulse (Shockable). If slower, they may maintain a pulse (Stable VT).

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  90. Q90.When performing 2-rescuer CPR on an adult, the compressor should count out loud to:

    A.Keep the rescuers in sync and ensure proper ratio
    B.Keep the patient awake
    C.Alert bystanders
    D.Record time
    AKeep the rescuers in sync and ensure proper ratio

    Explanation: Counting out loud helps maintain the 30:2 ratio and allows the ventilator to prepare to give breaths immediately after the 30th compression.

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  91. Q91.Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC) is confirmed by:

    A.The presence of a palpable pulse
    B.The patient waking up
    C.A normal ECG
    D.AED saying 'No Shock Advised'
    AThe presence of a palpable pulse

    Explanation: ROSC is defined as the return of a palpable pulse. The patient may or may not wake up or have a normal ECG immediately.

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  92. Q92.A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

    A.The aorta ruptures completely
    B.Blood separates the layers of the aortic wall
    C.A clot blocks the aorta
    D.The aorta narrows
    BBlood separates the layers of the aortic wall

    Explanation: Dissection is the separation of the inner layers (intima) from the outer layers, creating a false channel for blood flow. It causes tearing pain.

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  93. Q93.Which of the following patients should receive automated defibrillation?

    A.A patient in cardiac arrest with significant trauma
    B.A patient with a pulse who is unconscious
    C.A patient in cardiac arrest (medical etiology)
    D.A conscious patient with chest pain
    CA patient in cardiac arrest (medical etiology)

    Explanation: AEDs are for medical cardiac arrest. Traumatic arrest is usually due to hypovolemia or injury, not dysrhythmia (though protocols vary, medical arrest is the primary indication). Never shock a patient with a pulse.

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  94. Q94.The dosage for Nitroglycerin spray or tablet is typically:

    A.0.4 mg
    B.1 mg
    C.2 mg
    D.4 mg
    A0.4 mg

    Explanation: The standard dose is 0.4 mg (1/150 grain) per spray or tablet, repeated every 5 minutes up to 3 doses.

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  95. Q95.Gastric distention during CPR is most commonly caused by:

    A.Ventilating too fast or too forcefully
    B.Chest compressions
    C.The patient's condition
    D.Suctioning
    AVentilating too fast or too forcefully

    Explanation: Excessive force opens the esophagus, pushing air into the stomach. Ventilate only until you see chest rise.

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  96. Q96.You are treating a patient with CHF who has severe pulmonary edema. You should position them:

    A.Supine
    B.Trendelenburg
    C.High Fowler's (sitting upright)
    D.Left lateral recumbent
    CHigh Fowler's (sitting upright)

    Explanation: Sitting upright (High Fowler's) allows gravity to pool fluid in the bases of the lungs and legs, clearing the upper lung fields for gas exchange.

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  97. Q97.An Absolute Contraindication for fibrinolytic (clot-busting) therapy in stroke patients is:

    A.Age > 60
    B.Recent intracranial hemorrhage or surgery
    C.History of diabetes
    D.Symptoms started 1 hour ago
    BRecent intracranial hemorrhage or surgery

    Explanation: Fibrinolytics dissolve clots but will cause fatal bleeding if the patient has had a recent brain bleed or surgery.

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  98. Q98.The pulse pressure is defined as:

    A.Systolic minus Diastolic pressure
    B.Systolic plus Diastolic pressure
    C.Heart rate times Stroke Volume
    D.Mean Arterial Pressure
    ASystolic minus Diastolic pressure

    Explanation: Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic. (e.g., 120/80 = PP of 40). Narrowing pulse pressure is a sign of shock/tamponade. Widening is a sign of ICP.

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  99. Q99.A 10-month-old infant is unresponsive. To check for a pulse, you palpate the:

    A.Carotid artery
    B.Radial artery
    C.Brachial artery
    D.Femoral artery
    CBrachial artery

    Explanation: Brachial is the standard for infants <1 year. Carotid is difficult to locate due to neck fat.

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  100. Q100.Which condition causes the jugular veins to distend (JVD)?

    A.Hypovolemic shock
    B.Right-sided heart failure or Cardiac Tamponade
    C.Stroke
    D.Anaphylaxis
    BRight-sided heart failure or Cardiac Tamponade

    Explanation: JVD is caused by back-pressure in the venous system. If the Right Heart fails or is compressed (Tamponade/Tension Pneumo), blood cannot enter, backing up into the neck veins.

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  101. Q101.When performing CPR, you should minimize interruptions to less than:

    A.5 seconds
    B.10 seconds
    C.15 seconds
    D.20 seconds
    B10 seconds

    Explanation: Every interruption drops coronary perfusion pressure to zero. It takes several compressions to build it back up. Keep pauses <10 seconds.

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  102. Q102.If a patient has a pacemaker, you should:

    A.Not use the AED
    B.Place the AED pad directly over the device
    C.Place the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the device
    D.Use a magnet to disable it
    CPlace the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the device

    Explanation: Avoid placing pads over the device generator (lump under skin) to ensure effective current delivery and avoid damage to the device.

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  103. Q103.The phrase 'Time is Muscle' refers to:

    A.Stroke
    B.Myocardial Infarction
    C.Sepsis
    D.Trauma
    BMyocardial Infarction

    Explanation: In an MI, heart muscle dies the longer blood flow is blocked. Rapid transport and reperfusion (cath lab) save muscle.

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  104. Q104.Agonal respirations are:

    A.Effective breathing
    B.Gasping, irregular breaths that are ineffective
    C.Rapid, deep breaths
    D.Quiet breathing
    BGasping, irregular breaths that are ineffective

    Explanation: Agonal gasps are a brainstem reflex in cardiac arrest. They do NOT provide oxygen. Treat as apnea (start CPR).

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  105. Q105.A patient with a BP of 80/50 and a heart rate of 130 is in:

    A.Compensated Shock
    B.Decompensated Shock
    C.Hypertensive Crisis
    D.Stable condition
    BDecompensated Shock

    Explanation: Compensated shock maintains BP. Once BP drops (Hypotension), the patient has moved into Decompensated shock.

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  106. Q106.Which cardiac rhythm is a 'flat line'?

    A.VF
    B.VT
    C.PEA
    D.Asystole
    DAsystole

    Explanation: Asystole is the absence of electrical activity. It is not shockable.

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  107. Q107.The first step in using an AED is to:

    A.Apply the pads
    B.Turn it on
    C.Plug in the connector
    D.Clear the patient
    BTurn it on

    Explanation: Turn it on first. The voice prompts will guide you through the rest (Apply pads -> Plug in -> Analyze).

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  108. Q108.Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) is characterized by:

    A.Weakening of the heart muscle
    B.Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to plaque
    C.Infection of the heart valves
    D.Fluid around the heart
    BNarrowing of the coronary arteries due to plaque

    Explanation: CAD is the buildup of plaque (atherosclerosis) in the arteries supplying the heart, leading to ischemia and MI.

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  109. Q109.You witness a 9-year-old child collapse. You are alone. You should:

    A.Perform CPR for 2 minutes, then call 911/get AED
    B.Call 911/Get AED immediately, then start CPR
    C.Give rescue breaths only
    D.Wait for help
    BCall 911/Get AED immediately, then start CPR

    Explanation: For a *witnessed* collapse in a child/adolescent, suspect cardiac etiology (arrhythmia). Prioritize the AED/Defibrillation (Call First). If *unwitnessed*, suspect hypoxia (Care First - 2 min CPR).

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  110. Q110.What is the compression depth for a CHILD?

    A.1 inch
    B.1.5 inches
    C.About 2 inches (5 cm)
    D.2.5 inches
    CAbout 2 inches (5 cm)

    Explanation: Child depth is approx 2 inches (1/3 chest depth). Infant is 1.5 inches. Adult is 2-2.4 inches.

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