A 45-year-old male with a history of diabetes is found confused and sweating profusely. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. You suspect:

Hypoglycemia (Insulin Shock) presents rapidly with 'Cool, Pale, Diaphoretic' skin and altered mental status. (Remember: 'Cool and clammy, give them candy').

A patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) will likely present with:

Hyperglycemia (DKA) presents slowly with 'Warm, Dry' skin, dehydration, Kussmaul respirations, and a fruity (acetone) odor on the breath. (Remember: 'Hot and Dry, Sugar High').

Oral glucose is indicated for a patient who:

The patient must be able to protect their own airway (swallow) to receive oral medications. Never give anything by mouth to an unconscious patient.

You are treating a patient having a tonic-clonic seizure. The most important intervention is to:

Never restrain a seizing patient or put objects in their mouth. Clear the area of hazards and support the head. Manage the airway post-seizure.

Status Epilepticus is defined as:

Status Epilepticus is a life-threatening emergency requiring rapid transport and ALS intervention to stop the seizing before brain damage occurs.

Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in children under 5?

Rapid spikes in body temperature cause febrile seizures. They are usually benign but scary for parents.

An Ischemic Stroke is caused by:

Ischemic = Blockage (87% of strokes). Hemorrhagic = Bleeding (13%).

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses:

The FAST exam components: Facial Droop (smile), Arm Drift (hold arms out), Speech (repeat phrase).

Anaphylaxis is distinguished from a mild allergic reaction by:

Anaphylaxis is a systemic, life-threatening reaction involving 2+ body systems (e.g., Skin + Respiratory, or Skin + Cardiovascular). Respiratory compromise or Shock defines the emergency.

The correct dose for an adult Epinephrine Auto-Injector (EpiPen) is:

Adult (>66 lbs) dose is 0.3 mg (1:1000). Pediatric dose is 0.15 mg.

The Opioid Overdose Triad consists of:

Opioids depress the CNS. Look for the 'Pinpoint Pupils' and slow/absent breathing.

Naloxone (Narcan) is used to reverse the effects of:

Narcan is an opioid antagonist. It knocks the opioid off the receptor, restoring breathing. It does not work on alcohol or other drugs.

A patient with appendicitis will typically complain of pain in the:

Pain often starts periumbilical (around belly button) and migrates to the RLQ (McBurney's Point).

Dark, tarry stools (Melena) indicate bleeding in the:

Blood from the stomach is digested as it moves through the intestines, turning it black and tarry. Bright red blood (Hematochezia) indicates lower GI bleed.

Kidney stones (Renal Colic) typically present with:

The stone scrapes the ureter, causing excruciating 10/10 flank/back pain radiating downward.

A 23-year-old female complains of sudden onset, severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She states she missed her last period. You should suspect:

Sudden, severe unilateral pain + missed period + spotting/bleeding is the classic triad for Ectopic Pregnancy. This is a life-threatening emergency (rupture causes internal hemorrhage).

Supine Hypotensive Syndrome occurs in late pregnancy because:

The weight of the fetus compresses the large vein (IVC) returning blood to the heart when the mother lies flat on her back, causing dizziness and hypotension. Treat by tilting her onto her left side.

The first stage of labor ends with:

Stage 1: Contractions to Full Dilation. Stage 2: Full Dilation to Delivery of Baby. Stage 3: Delivery of Baby to Delivery of Placenta.

Meconium staining (green/brown amniotic fluid) indicates:

Meconium is fetal stool. Its presence suggests the baby was stressed (hypoxic). It poses a risk of aspiration pneumonia if inhaled during birth.

After the baby's head delivers, you see the umbilical cord wrapped around the neck (nuchal cord). You should first:

Attempt to slip it over the head/shoulders. If it is too tight and cannot be moved, clamp and cut it immediately before the body delivers.

Which of the following APGAR scores requires immediate resuscitation?

APGAR scores 7-10 are normal. 4-6 require stimulation/oxygen. 0-3 require immediate CPR/PPV.

A prolapsed cord (umbilical cord visible before the baby) is treated by:

This is a dire emergency. The baby's head compresses the cord, cutting off its own oxygen supply. You must manually relieve that pressure and transport rapidly.

Placenta Previa is characterized by:

The placenta covers the cervix. As the cervix dilates, the placenta tears, causing bright red, painless bleeding. (Abruptio Placentae is painful).

Preeclampsia typically presents with:

Preeclampsia (Toxemia) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Look for BP >140/90, swollen hands/face, and visual disturbances.

Eclampsia is defined as Preeclampsia with the addition of:

Once the patient seizes, the condition has progressed from Preeclampsia to Eclampsia. It is life-threatening to mother and baby.

Activated Charcoal is contraindicated if the patient:

Charcoal does not bind to these substances, and vomiting them back up (a side effect of charcoal) causes further damage to the esophagus/lungs.

The standard dose of Activated Charcoal is:

Typical adult dose is 50-100g. Pediatric is 12.5-25g. The formula is 1 gram per kilogram.

Delirium Tremens (DTs) are a severe withdrawal syndrome from:

Alcohol withdrawal can be fatal. DTs involve tremors, hallucinations, seizures, and fever, starting 48-72 hours after cessation.

A patient with Carbon Monoxide poisoning will typically present with:

Early CO poisoning looks like the flu. Cherry red skin is a post-mortem/very late finding. SpO2 will be falsely normal (100%).

You are treating a patient with a behavioral emergency. He is agitated but not violent. You should:

De-escalation is the first line of defense. Restraints are a last resort for patients who are a danger to themselves or others.

Excited Delirium is a medical emergency characterized by:

Often drug-induced (cocaine/meth), these patients fight restraints violently until they suddenly collapse into cardiac arrest due to acidosis/hyperthermia.

A patient has been bitten by a rabid dog. Rabies is a:

Rabies is a fatal viral encephalitis. Treatment (vaccine/IG) must be started before symptoms appear.

Which of the following describes 'visceral' abdominal pain?

Visceral pain comes from the organs themselves (which have few nerve endings). It is dull/crampy. Somatic/Parietal pain comes from the lining (peritoneum) and is sharp/localized.

A strangulated hernia is an emergency because:

If the loop of bowel trapped in the hernia loses its blood supply (strangulation), it will die and rupture, causing sepsis.

Sickle Cell Anemia crises are typically triggered by:

These triggers cause the RBCs to sickle (change shape), blocking small blood vessels and causing severe pain (Vaso-occlusive crisis).

Hemophilia is a disorder where:

Hemophiliacs can bleed to death from minor injuries. Transport immediately.

You are treating a sexual assault victim. You should:

Your priority is medical care and psychological support. Preserving evidence is secondary but important (do not let them wash). Do not interrogate or examine genitals unless there is life-threatening bleeding.

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is typically caused by:

Bacteria ascend from the vagina into the uterus/tubes, causing deep infection, scarring, and infertility.

A 'breech presentation' means:

Breech births are high risk. If the head gets stuck, the baby can suffocate. Rapid transport is usually indicated unless delivery is imminent.

Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than:

>500 mL after vaginal delivery is a hemorrhage. Treat with fundal massage and breastfeeding (releases oxytocin).

Fundal massage is performed to:

Massaging the top of the uterus (fundus) makes it firm (contract), which compresses the bleeding vessels at the placental site.

Fontanelles allow the head to mold during birth and the brain to grow. A sunken fontanelle indicates dehydration. A bulging one indicates increased ICP (meningitis).

SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome) is:

SIDS is the unexplained death of an infant <1 year. Treat the scene as a crime scene but support the grieving parents.

Geriatric patients often have a diminished sensation of pain. This means:

Neuropathy and aging reduce pain perception. An elderly patient with a 'mild stomach ache' could have a ruptured bowel.

Polypharmacy refers to:

Common in the elderly, polypharmacy increases the risk of adverse drug interactions and overdose.

Which of the following causes 'conductive' hearing loss?

Conductive loss is a mechanical blockage (wax, fluid). Sensorineural loss is nerve damage.

A patient with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) may:

While presentations vary, sensory sensitivity and communication challenges are hallmarks. Speak calmly and explain actions before doing them.

Dialysis is used to treat:

Dialysis filters toxins and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys can no longer do so (ESRD).

An AV Fistula (shunt) in a dialysis patient's arm often has a palpable 'thrill' (vibration). You should:

Compressing a shunt (with a BP cuff) or puncturing it can ruin the lifeline for a dialysis patient. Use the other arm.

Meningitis is an inflammation of the:

The meninges cover the CNS. Infection (bacterial/viral) causes fever, stiff neck (nuchal rigidity), and photophobia.

You are treating a patient with a history of alcoholism who is vomiting bright red blood. You suspect:

Esophageal varices are dilated veins in the esophagus caused by portal hypertension (liver failure/alcoholism). Rupture leads to massive, bright red hematemesis and is life-threatening.

EMT National Registry Exam

Medical Practice Questions

130 practice questions with detailed explanations — aligned to the EMT National Registry Exam.

Q1.A 45-year-old male with a history of diabetes is found confused and sweating profusely. His skin is pale, cool, and clammy. You suspect:
A.Hyperglycemia (High blood sugar)
B.Hypoglycemia (Low blood sugar)
C.Stroke
D.Heart attack
B. Hypoglycemia (Low blood sugar)
Explanation: Hypoglycemia (Insulin Shock) presents rapidly with 'Cool, Pale, Diaphoretic' skin and altered mental status. (Remember: 'Cool and clammy, give them candy').
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q2.A patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) will likely present with:
A.Slow, shallow breathing
B.Cool, clammy skin
C.Warm, dry skin and fruity breath odor
D.Low blood sugar
C. Warm, dry skin and fruity breath odor
Explanation: Hyperglycemia (DKA) presents slowly with 'Warm, Dry' skin, dehydration, Kussmaul respirations, and a fruity (acetone) odor on the breath. (Remember: 'Hot and Dry, Sugar High').
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q3.Oral glucose is indicated for a patient who:
A.Is unconscious with a low blood sugar
B.Is conscious, can swallow, and has a low blood sugar
C.Is suspected of having a stroke
D.Has a blood sugar > 200 mg/dL
B. Is conscious, can swallow, and has a low blood sugar
Explanation: The patient must be able to protect their own airway (swallow) to receive oral medications. Never give anything by mouth to an unconscious patient.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q4.You are treating a patient having a tonic-clonic seizure. The most important intervention is to:
A.Restrain the patient
B.Place a bite block in the mouth
C.Protect the patient from injury and maintain the airway
D.Administer oral glucose
C. Protect the patient from injury and maintain the airway
Explanation: Never restrain a seizing patient or put objects in their mouth. Clear the area of hazards and support the head. Manage the airway post-seizure.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q5.Status Epilepticus is defined as:
A.A seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness
B.A seizure that stops on its own
C.A febrile seizure
D.A staring spell
A. A seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness
Explanation: Status Epilepticus is a life-threatening emergency requiring rapid transport and ALS intervention to stop the seizing before brain damage occurs.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q6.Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in children under 5?
A.Epilepsy
B.Head trauma
C.High fever (Febrile seizures)
D.Hypoglycemia
C. High fever (Febrile seizures)
Explanation: Rapid spikes in body temperature cause febrile seizures. They are usually benign but scary for parents.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q7.An Ischemic Stroke is caused by:
A.Rupture of a blood vessel in the brain
B.Blockage of a blood vessel by a clot
C.Low blood pressure
D.Trauma
B. Blockage of a blood vessel by a clot
Explanation: Ischemic = Blockage (87% of strokes). Hemorrhagic = Bleeding (13%).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q8.The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses:
A.Blood pressure, Pulse, Respiration
B.Facial droop, Arm drift, Abnormal speech
C.Grip strength, Sensation, Pupil reaction
D.Balance, Eyes, Face
B. Facial droop, Arm drift, Abnormal speech
Explanation: The FAST exam components: Facial Droop (smile), Arm Drift (hold arms out), Speech (repeat phrase).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q9.Anaphylaxis is distinguished from a mild allergic reaction by:
A.Hives (Urticaria)
B.Itching
C.Respiratory distress (wheezing/stridor) or signs of shock (hypotension)
D.Redness
C. Respiratory distress (wheezing/stridor) or signs of shock (hypotension)
Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a systemic, life-threatening reaction involving 2+ body systems (e.g., Skin + Respiratory, or Skin + Cardiovascular). Respiratory compromise or Shock defines the emergency.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q10.The correct dose for an adult Epinephrine Auto-Injector (EpiPen) is:
A.0.15 mg
B.0.3 mg
C.0.5 mg
D.1.0 mg
B. 0.3 mg
Explanation: Adult (>66 lbs) dose is 0.3 mg (1:1000). Pediatric dose is 0.15 mg.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q11.The Opioid Overdose Triad consists of:
A.Hypertension, Tachycardia, Dilated pupils
B.Coma (unconsciousness), Respiratory depression, Pinpoint pupils
C.Seizure, Vomiting, Diarrhea
D.Fever, Rash, Joint pain
B. Coma (unconsciousness), Respiratory depression, Pinpoint pupils
Explanation: Opioids depress the CNS. Look for the 'Pinpoint Pupils' and slow/absent breathing.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q12.Naloxone (Narcan) is used to reverse the effects of:
A.Alcohol
B.Benzodiazepines
C.Opioids (Heroin, Fentanyl, Oxycodone)
D.Cocaine
C. Opioids (Heroin, Fentanyl, Oxycodone)
Explanation: Narcan is an opioid antagonist. It knocks the opioid off the receptor, restoring breathing. It does not work on alcohol or other drugs.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q13.A patient with appendicitis will typically complain of pain in the:
A.Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ)
B.Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
C.Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
D.Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
C. Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
Explanation: Pain often starts periumbilical (around belly button) and migrates to the RLQ (McBurney's Point).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q14.Dark, tarry stools (Melena) indicate bleeding in the:
A.Lower GI tract (Colon)
B.Upper GI tract (Stomach/Esophagus)
C.Kidneys
D.Bladder
B. Upper GI tract (Stomach/Esophagus)
Explanation: Blood from the stomach is digested as it moves through the intestines, turning it black and tarry. Bright red blood (Hematochezia) indicates lower GI bleed.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q15.Kidney stones (Renal Colic) typically present with:
A.Severe flank pain radiating to the groin
B.Chest pain
C.Shoulder pain
D.Headache
A. Severe flank pain radiating to the groin
Explanation: The stone scrapes the ureter, causing excruciating 10/10 flank/back pain radiating downward.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q16.A 23-year-old female complains of sudden onset, severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She states she missed her last period. You should suspect:
A.Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
B.Ectopic Pregnancy
C.Appendicitis
D.Kidney Stone
B. Ectopic Pregnancy
Explanation: Sudden, severe unilateral pain + missed period + spotting/bleeding is the classic triad for Ectopic Pregnancy. This is a life-threatening emergency (rupture causes internal hemorrhage).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q17.Supine Hypotensive Syndrome occurs in late pregnancy because:
A.The uterus compresses the Inferior Vena Cava
B.The mother is dehydrated
C.The baby kicks the aorta
D.The placenta separates
A. The uterus compresses the Inferior Vena Cava
Explanation: The weight of the fetus compresses the large vein (IVC) returning blood to the heart when the mother lies flat on her back, causing dizziness and hypotension. Treat by tilting her onto her left side.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q18.The first stage of labor ends with:
A.The onset of contractions
B.Full dilation of the cervix (10 cm)
C.The delivery of the baby
D.The delivery of the placenta
B. Full dilation of the cervix (10 cm)
Explanation: Stage 1: Contractions to Full Dilation. Stage 2: Full Dilation to Delivery of Baby. Stage 3: Delivery of Baby to Delivery of Placenta.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q19.Meconium staining (green/brown amniotic fluid) indicates:
A.The baby is premature
B.Fetal distress (the baby passed stool in utero)
C.Multiple births (twins)
D.Normal finding
B. Fetal distress (the baby passed stool in utero)
Explanation: Meconium is fetal stool. Its presence suggests the baby was stressed (hypoxic). It poses a risk of aspiration pneumonia if inhaled during birth.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q20.After the baby's head delivers, you see the umbilical cord wrapped around the neck (nuchal cord). You should first:
A.Clamp and cut the cord immediately
B.Push the baby back in
C.Try to gently slip the cord over the baby's head
D.Tell the mother to push harder
C. Try to gently slip the cord over the baby's head
Explanation: Attempt to slip it over the head/shoulders. If it is too tight and cannot be moved, clamp and cut it immediately before the body delivers.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q21.Which of the following APGAR scores requires immediate resuscitation?
A.8
B.3
C.7
D.9
B. 3
Explanation: APGAR scores 7-10 are normal. 4-6 require stimulation/oxygen. 0-3 require immediate CPR/PPV.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q22.A prolapsed cord (umbilical cord visible before the baby) is treated by:
A.Pushing the cord back in
B.Positioning the mother knee-chest or hips elevated, and inserting a gloved hand to lift the baby's head off the cord
C.Immediate delivery
D.Cutting the cord
B. Positioning the mother knee-chest or hips elevated, and inserting a gloved hand to lift the baby's head off the cord
Explanation: This is a dire emergency. The baby's head compresses the cord, cutting off its own oxygen supply. You must manually relieve that pressure and transport rapidly.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q23.Placenta Previa is characterized by:
A.Painful vaginal bleeding
B.Painless vaginal bleeding
C.Severe abdominal pain without bleeding
D.Seizures
B. Painless vaginal bleeding
Explanation: The placenta covers the cervix. As the cervix dilates, the placenta tears, causing bright red, painless bleeding. (Abruptio Placentae is painful).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q24.Preeclampsia typically presents with:
A.Hypotension and bradycardia
B.Hypertension, edema (swelling), and headache
C.Vaginal bleeding
D.Fever
B. Hypertension, edema (swelling), and headache
Explanation: Preeclampsia (Toxemia) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Look for BP >140/90, swollen hands/face, and visual disturbances.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q25.Eclampsia is defined as Preeclampsia with the addition of:
A.Seizures
B.Bleeding
C.Labor
D.Coma
A. Seizures
Explanation: Once the patient seizes, the condition has progressed from Preeclampsia to Eclampsia. It is life-threatening to mother and baby.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q26.Activated Charcoal is contraindicated if the patient:
A.Has ingested acid, alkali, or petroleum products
B.Is conscious and alert
C.Has ingested aspirin
D.Is under 18
A. Has ingested acid, alkali, or petroleum products
Explanation: Charcoal does not bind to these substances, and vomiting them back up (a side effect of charcoal) causes further damage to the esophagus/lungs.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q27.The standard dose of Activated Charcoal is:
A.1 g/kg of body weight
B.25 g for everyone
C.100 mg
D.1 tube
A. 1 g/kg of body weight
Explanation: Typical adult dose is 50-100g. Pediatric is 12.5-25g. The formula is 1 gram per kilogram.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q28.Delirium Tremens (DTs) are a severe withdrawal syndrome from:
A.Opioids
B.Alcohol
C.Cocaine
D.Marijuana
B. Alcohol
Explanation: Alcohol withdrawal can be fatal. DTs involve tremors, hallucinations, seizures, and fever, starting 48-72 hours after cessation.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q29.A patient with Carbon Monoxide poisoning will typically present with:
A.Cherry red skin (late)
B.Headache, dizziness, nausea, fatigue (flu-like symptoms)
C.Cyanosis
D.Low SpO2 reading
B. Headache, dizziness, nausea, fatigue (flu-like symptoms)
Explanation: Early CO poisoning looks like the flu. Cherry red skin is a post-mortem/very late finding. SpO2 will be falsely normal (100%).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q30.You are treating a patient with a behavioral emergency. He is agitated but not violent. You should:
A.Restrain him immediately
B.Speak calmly, maintain a safe distance, and avoid challenging him
C.Leave the scene
D.Yell at him to sit down
B. Speak calmly, maintain a safe distance, and avoid challenging him
Explanation: De-escalation is the first line of defense. Restraints are a last resort for patients who are a danger to themselves or others.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q31.Excited Delirium is a medical emergency characterized by:
A.Extreme agitation, superhuman strength, hyperthermia, and sudden cardiac arrest
B.Depression
C.Sleepiness
D.Confusion
A. Extreme agitation, superhuman strength, hyperthermia, and sudden cardiac arrest
Explanation: Often drug-induced (cocaine/meth), these patients fight restraints violently until they suddenly collapse into cardiac arrest due to acidosis/hyperthermia.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q32.A patient has been bitten by a rabid dog. Rabies is a:
A.Bacterial infection
B.Viral infection affecting the nervous system
C.Fungal infection
D.Parasite
B. Viral infection affecting the nervous system
Explanation: Rabies is a fatal viral encephalitis. Treatment (vaccine/IG) must be started before symptoms appear.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q33.Which of the following describes 'visceral' abdominal pain?
A.Sharp, localized, pinpoint pain
B.Dull, achy, poorly localized pain
C.Tearing pain
D.Pain radiating to the leg
B. Dull, achy, poorly localized pain
Explanation: Visceral pain comes from the organs themselves (which have few nerve endings). It is dull/crampy. Somatic/Parietal pain comes from the lining (peritoneum) and is sharp/localized.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q34.A strangulated hernia is an emergency because:
A.It causes constipation
B.The blood supply to the tissue is cut off, causing necrosis
C.It looks bad
D.It causes vomiting
B. The blood supply to the tissue is cut off, causing necrosis
Explanation: If the loop of bowel trapped in the hernia loses its blood supply (strangulation), it will die and rupture, causing sepsis.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q35.Sickle Cell Anemia crises are typically triggered by:
A.Dehydration, hypoxia, or stress
B.Eating sugar
C.Sleeping too much
D.Taking aspirin
A. Dehydration, hypoxia, or stress
Explanation: These triggers cause the RBCs to sickle (change shape), blocking small blood vessels and causing severe pain (Vaso-occlusive crisis).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q36.Hemophilia is a disorder where:
A.The blood clots too much
B.The blood cannot clot properly due to missing clotting factors
C.There are too few red blood cells
D.White blood cells attack the body
B. The blood cannot clot properly due to missing clotting factors
Explanation: Hemophiliacs can bleed to death from minor injuries. Transport immediately.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q37.You are treating a sexual assault victim. You should:
A.Allow them to shower and change clothes
B.Encourage them not to clean up to preserve evidence, and provide emotional support
C.Examine the genital area in detail
D.Question them about the details of the assault
B. Encourage them not to clean up to preserve evidence, and provide emotional support
Explanation: Your priority is medical care and psychological support. Preserving evidence is secondary but important (do not let them wash). Do not interrogate or examine genitals unless there is life-threatening bleeding.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q38.Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is typically caused by:
A.Untreated STDs (Chlamydia/Gonorrhea)
B.Trauma
C.Poor hygiene
D.Pregnancy
A. Untreated STDs (Chlamydia/Gonorrhea)
Explanation: Bacteria ascend from the vagina into the uterus/tubes, causing deep infection, scarring, and infertility.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q39.A 'breech presentation' means:
A.The head delivers first
B.The buttocks or feet deliver first
C.A limb delivers first
D.The cord delivers first
B. The buttocks or feet deliver first
Explanation: Breech births are high risk. If the head gets stuck, the baby can suffocate. Rapid transport is usually indicated unless delivery is imminent.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q40.Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than:
A.100 mL
B.250 mL
C.500 mL
D.1000 mL
C. 500 mL
Explanation: >500 mL after vaginal delivery is a hemorrhage. Treat with fundal massage and breastfeeding (releases oxytocin).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q41.Fundal massage is performed to:
A.Comfort the mother
B.Stimulate the uterus to contract and stop bleeding
C.Help deliver the placenta
D.Check for twins
B. Stimulate the uterus to contract and stop bleeding
Explanation: Massaging the top of the uterus (fundus) makes it firm (contract), which compresses the bleeding vessels at the placental site.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q42.A 'Fontanelle' is:
A.A soft spot on an infant's skull
B.A type of seizure
C.A bone in the ear
D.A congenital heart defect
A. A soft spot on an infant's skull
Explanation: Fontanelles allow the head to mold during birth and the brain to grow. A sunken fontanelle indicates dehydration. A bulging one indicates increased ICP (meningitis).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q43.SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome) is:
A.Caused by suffocation
B.A diagnosis of exclusion (no known cause found after autopsy)
C.Caused by vaccination
D.Always the result of abuse
B. A diagnosis of exclusion (no known cause found after autopsy)
Explanation: SIDS is the unexplained death of an infant <1 year. Treat the scene as a crime scene but support the grieving parents.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q44.Geriatric patients often have a diminished sensation of pain. This means:
A.They don't get hurt
B.Severe problems (like MI or appendicitis) may present with mild or vague symptoms
C.They heal faster
D.They complain more
B. Severe problems (like MI or appendicitis) may present with mild or vague symptoms
Explanation: Neuropathy and aging reduce pain perception. An elderly patient with a 'mild stomach ache' could have a ruptured bowel.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q45.Polypharmacy refers to:
A.Going to multiple doctors
B.The use of multiple medications by a single patient
C.Drug abuse
D.Buying cheap drugs
B. The use of multiple medications by a single patient
Explanation: Common in the elderly, polypharmacy increases the risk of adverse drug interactions and overdose.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q46.Which of the following causes 'conductive' hearing loss?
A.Nerve damage
B.Earwax buildup (cerumen impaction)
C.Old age (presbycusis)
D.Stroke
B. Earwax buildup (cerumen impaction)
Explanation: Conductive loss is a mechanical blockage (wax, fluid). Sensorineural loss is nerve damage.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q47.A patient with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) may:
A.Be non-verbal, sensitive to noise/touch, and avoid eye contact
B.Be aggressive
C.Have a low IQ
D.All of the above
A. Be non-verbal, sensitive to noise/touch, and avoid eye contact
Explanation: While presentations vary, sensory sensitivity and communication challenges are hallmarks. Speak calmly and explain actions before doing them.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q48.Dialysis is used to treat:
A.Liver failure
B.Kidney (Renal) failure
C.Heart failure
D.Lung failure
B. Kidney (Renal) failure
Explanation: Dialysis filters toxins and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys can no longer do so (ESRD).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q49.An AV Fistula (shunt) in a dialysis patient's arm often has a palpable 'thrill' (vibration). You should:
A.Take a blood pressure on that arm
B.Start an IV in that arm
C.Never take a BP or start an IV in the arm with a shunt
D.Clamp it
C. Never take a BP or start an IV in the arm with a shunt
Explanation: Compressing a shunt (with a BP cuff) or puncturing it can ruin the lifeline for a dialysis patient. Use the other arm.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q50.Meningitis is an inflammation of the:
A.Brain tissue itself
B.Linings surrounding the brain and spinal cord
C.Spinal cord only
D.Inner ear
B. Linings surrounding the brain and spinal cord
Explanation: The meninges cover the CNS. Infection (bacterial/viral) causes fever, stiff neck (nuchal rigidity), and photophobia.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q51.You are treating a patient with a history of alcoholism who is vomiting bright red blood. You suspect:
A.Esophageal Varices
B.Gastric Ulcer
C.Appendicitis
D.Cholecystitis
A. Esophageal Varices
Explanation: Esophageal varices are dilated veins in the esophagus caused by portal hypertension (liver failure/alcoholism). Rupture leads to massive, bright red hematemesis and is life-threatening.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q52.A patient complains of Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) abdominal pain that radiates to the right shoulder after eating a greasy meal. This is characteristic of:
A.Appendicitis
B.Cholecystitis (Gallbladder inflammation)
C.Kidney Stones
D.Pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis (Gallbladder inflammation)
Explanation: The gallbladder digests fats. Fatty meals trigger contraction, causing pain if stones are present. Referred pain to the right shoulder is common.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q53.The '3 Ps' of undiagnosed Diabetes (Hyperglycemia) are:
A.Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness
B.Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
C.Panic, Paranoia, Psychosis
D.Pulse, Pressure, Pupil
B. Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
Explanation: Polyuria (excessive urination), Polydipsia (thirst), and Polyphagia (hunger) are the classic signs of high blood sugar.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q54.SLUDGE is an acronym used to identify the effects of exposure to:
A.Organophosphates (Nerve agents/Insecticides)
B.Carbon Monoxide
C.Cyanide
D.Opioids
A. Organophosphates (Nerve agents/Insecticides)
Explanation: Organophosphates cause cholinergic overstimulation: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI upset, Emesis.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q55.When restraining a violent patient, you should never:
A.Use soft restraints
B.Restrain them in a prone (face down) position
C.Restrain one arm up and one arm down
D.Have police present
B. Restrain them in a prone (face down) position
Explanation: Prone restraint creates a high risk of positional asphyxia (suffocation). Patients should be restrained supine or lateral.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q56.Mittelschmerz is abdominal pain associated with:
A.Menstruation
B.Ovulation (mid-cycle)
C.Pregnancy
D.Appendicitis
B. Ovulation (mid-cycle)
Explanation: Mittelschmerz ('middle pain') occurs midway through the menstrual cycle due to the rupture of the ovarian follicle during ovulation.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q57.A 13-year-old male complains of sudden, severe testicular pain. There was no trauma. You suspect:
A.Testicular Torsion
B.Epididymitis
C.Hernia
D.Kidney stone
A. Testicular Torsion
Explanation: Torsion cuts off blood supply to the testicle. It is a surgical emergency requiring intervention within 6 hours to save the testicle.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q58.Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia can cause:
A.Ventricular Fibrillation
B.Seizures
C.Stroke
D.Rewarming shock
A. Ventricular Fibrillation
Explanation: A cold heart is irritable. Rough movement can trigger fatal arrhythmias (VF). Handle gently.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q59.Diverticulitis typically presents with pain in the:
A.Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)
B.Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
C.Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)
D.Epigastric region
B. Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ)
Explanation: Diverticula (pouches) in the colon become infected. The sigmoid colon is in the LLQ.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q60.Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via:
A.Blood
B.Sexual contact
C.Fecal-oral route
D.Airborne droplets
C. Fecal-oral route
Explanation: Hepatitis A is food/waterborne (fecal-oral). Hepatitis B and C are bloodborne.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q61.Tuberculosis (TB) requires which type of PPE?
A.Surgical mask
B.N95 or HEPA respirator
C.Gown only
D.Gloves only
B. N95 or HEPA respirator
Explanation: TB is airborne. Standard surgical masks do not filter the bacteria. An N95 is required.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q62.The difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes is:
A.Type 1 patients do not produce insulin; Type 2 patients are insulin resistant
B.Type 1 is less severe
C.Type 2 requires insulin injections immediately
D.Type 1 is caused by obesity
A. Type 1 patients do not produce insulin; Type 2 patients are insulin resistant
Explanation: Type 1 is autoimmune (pancreas produces no insulin). Type 2 is metabolic (cells resist insulin).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q63.A patient with a Ventricular Peritoneal (VP) Shunt complains of headache and vomiting. You suspect:
A.Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) due to shunt failure
B.Migraine
C.Flu
D.Food poisoning
A. Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) due to shunt failure
Explanation: VP shunts drain fluid from the brain. If blocked/infected, ICP rises, causing headache, vomiting, and altered mental status.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q64.When assessing a suicidal patient, the most significant risk factor is:
A.Being sad
B.Having a specific plan and the means to carry it out
C.Being young
D.Being employed
B. Having a specific plan and the means to carry it out
Explanation: Specific plan + Means + Intent = High Risk. Do not leave the patient alone.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q65.Delirium differs from Dementia in that:
A.Delirium is acute (sudden) and reversible; Dementia is chronic and progressive
B.Delirium is permanent
C.Dementia is caused by drugs
D.There is no difference
A. Delirium is acute (sudden) and reversible; Dementia is chronic and progressive
Explanation: Sudden onset confusion (delirium) is a medical emergency (infection, toxicity). Dementia is a slow decline.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q66.A 'Gravida 3, Para 2' (G3P2) patient:
A.Has been pregnant 3 times and delivered 2 live births
B.Has been pregnant 2 times and delivered 3 babies
C.Is currently pregnant with twins
D.Has had 3 miscarriages
A. Has been pregnant 3 times and delivered 2 live births
Explanation: Gravida = Number of times pregnant (including current). Para = Number of deliveries >20 weeks.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q67.The Mammalian Diving Reflex is triggered by:
A.Submersion of the face in cold water
B.Running
C.Heat stroke
D.Sleeping
A. Submersion of the face in cold water
Explanation: Cold water on the face slows the heart (bradycardia) and shunts blood to the brain, prolonging survival in drowning (especially children).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q68.A patient home ventilator alarm is sounding and the patient's SpO2 is dropping. You should first:
A.Troubleshoot the machine
B.Disconnect the ventilator and ventilate with a BVM
C.Suction the airway
D.Call the manufacturer
B. Disconnect the ventilator and ventilate with a BVM
Explanation: Do not waste time fixing the machine while the patient dies. Disconnect and manually ventilate (BVM) to ensure oxygenation.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q69.A febrile seizure in a child should be treated by:
A.Rapidly cooling in an ice bath
B.Removing clothing and cooling gently with tepid water; ensure airway is open
C.Administering aspirin
D.Restraining the child
B. Removing clothing and cooling gently with tepid water; ensure airway is open
Explanation: Rapid cooling causes shivering (which raises temp). Use tepid measures. Aspirin is contraindicated in children (Reye's syndrome).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q70.The primary cause of cardiac arrest in dialysis patients is:
A.Hyperkalemia (High Potassium)
B.Hypoglycemia
C.Hypothermia
D.Stroke
A. Hyperkalemia (High Potassium)
Explanation: Missed dialysis leads to electrolyte imbalances. High potassium stops the heart.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q71.Which presentation suggests a limb presentation birth?
A.A single arm or leg protruding from the vagina
B.The buttocks visible
C.The head visible
D.The cord visible
A. A single arm or leg protruding from the vagina
Explanation: A limb presentation cannot be delivered in the field. Position mother in knee-chest or hips elevated and transport rapidly.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q72.Braxton-Hicks contractions are:
A.True labor
B.False labor (irregular, do not increase in intensity)
C.Caused by trauma
D.Constant pain
B. False labor (irregular, do not increase in intensity)
Explanation: Braxton-Hicks are practice contractions. They do not dilate the cervix and often stop with movement/hydration.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q73.A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear in the:
A.Junction of the esophagus and stomach
B.Rectum
C.Liver
D.Aorta
A. Junction of the esophagus and stomach
Explanation: Caused by severe retching/vomiting (often bulimia or alcoholism), leading to upper GI bleeding.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q74.Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) usually occurs before the:
A.20th week
B.30th week
C.10th week
D.38th week
A. 20th week
Explanation: Defined as pregnancy loss before 20 weeks. After 20 weeks, it is a preterm birth/stillbirth.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q75.The most common sign of dehydration in an infant is:
A.Sunken fontanelle and dry diapers
B.Bulging fontanelle
C.Excessive crying with tears
D.Sweating
A. Sunken fontanelle and dry diapers
Explanation: Fluid loss leads to a sunken soft spot and lack of urine output (dry diapers).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q76.MRSA is a bacteria that is:
A.Resistant to many antibiotics
B.A virus
C.Harmless
D.Found only in hospitals
A. Resistant to many antibiotics
Explanation: Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus. Use standard precautions and disinfect equipment thoroughly.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q77.Anemia is a deficiency of:
A.Red blood cells (Hemoglobin)
B.White blood cells
C.Platelets
D.Plasma
A. Red blood cells (Hemoglobin)
Explanation: Low RBCs reduce oxygen carrying capacity. Patients are pale and fatigue easily.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q78.A patient with Down Syndrome is at increased risk for:
A.Airway obstruction (large tongue, small airway)
B.Diabetes
C.Stroke
D.Trauma
A. Airway obstruction (large tongue, small airway)
Explanation: Anatomical features (large tongue) make airway management challenging. Also associated with heart defects and atlantoaxial instability.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q79.Shaken Baby Syndrome causes death primarily via:
A.Intracranial bleeding (subdural) and brain swelling
B.Broken neck
C.Heart attack
D.Abdominal trauma
A. Intracranial bleeding (subdural) and brain swelling
Explanation: Shearing forces tear the bridging veins in the brain, causing subdural hematomas and retinal hemorrhage.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q80.When assessing a geriatric patient with pneumonia, the only presenting sign may be:
A.Altered mental status (Confusion)
B.High fever
C.Productive cough
D.Chest pain
A. Altered mental status (Confusion)
Explanation: Elderly immune systems may not mount a fever. Confusion is often the first sign of infection (sepsis/pneumonia/UTI).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q81.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) presents with:
A.Shortness of breath and cough with pink sputum at high elevation
B.Chest pain
C.Stroke-like symptoms
D.Leg pain
A. Shortness of breath and cough with pink sputum at high elevation
Explanation: Pressure changes at altitude cause fluid to leak into the lungs. Treatment is descent.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q82.A patient who has ingested a drain cleaner (strong alkali) should:
A.NOT be made to vomit
B.Be given syrup of ipecac
C.Be given vinegar
D.Have their stomach pumped immediately
A. NOT be made to vomit
Explanation: Caustic substances burn on the way down. Vomiting brings them back up, burning the esophagus a second time. Dilution with water/milk may be indicated per medical control.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q83.Which breathing pattern is associated with increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
A.Biot's or Cheyne-Stokes
B.Kussmaul
C.Agonal
D.Eupnea
A. Biot's or Cheyne-Stokes
Explanation: Irregular patterns (Biot's) or waxing/waning (Cheyne-Stokes) indicate brainstem compression.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q84.The first stage of labor begins with:
A.Regular contractions
B.Rupture of membranes (water breaking)
C.Full dilation
D.Bloody show
A. Regular contractions
Explanation: Regular contractions mark the onset of labor. Water breaking can happen before or during.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q85.Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by:
A.Reduced blood flow to the brain
B.Stroke
C.Head trauma
D.Alcohol
A. Reduced blood flow to the brain
Explanation: Global hypoperfusion of the brain causes fainting. It resolves when the patient is flat.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q86.Abruptio Placentae is best defined as:
A.The placenta implanting over the cervix
B.Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
C.A tear in the uterine wall
D.High blood pressure during pregnancy
B. Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall
Explanation: Abruptio Placentae involves the placenta ripping away from the uterus before birth, causing severe pain and internal/external bleeding. It is a life threat to mother and baby.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q87.When assessing a newborn immediately after birth, you note the heart rate is 80 beats per minute and respirations are slow. You should:
A.Begin chest compressions
B.Administer blow-by oxygen
C.Initiate positive pressure ventilation (BVM) with room air
D.Vigorously dry the infant
C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation (BVM) with room air
Explanation: If a newborn's heart rate is <100 or they are apneic/gasping, positive pressure ventilation (PPV) is the priority intervention. Compressions are started if HR <60.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q88.A precipitous delivery is one that:
A.Occurs very rapidly (less than 3 hours of labor)
B.Requires a C-section
C.Involves twins
D.Is premature
A. Occurs very rapidly (less than 3 hours of labor)
Explanation: Precipitous labor is extremely fast. Be prepared to catch the baby immediately, as the mother may not be able to control the urge to push.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q89.Which of the following patients is at highest risk for Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)?
A.A teenager with Type 1 Diabetes
B.An elderly patient with Type 2 Diabetes
C.A pregnant patient
D.A patient with hypoglycemia
B. An elderly patient with Type 2 Diabetes
Explanation: HHNS is the Type 2 equivalent of DKA. It occurs in elderly/Type 2 diabetics, involves extremely high blood sugar (>600) and dehydration, but NO ketones/acidosis.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q90.An 'aura' experienced by a patient with epilepsy is:
A.A severe headache after the seizure
B.A sensation (smell, sound, visual) that warns a seizure is about to happen
C.The muscle spasms during the seizure
D.Loss of bowel control
B. A sensation (smell, sound, visual) that warns a seizure is about to happen
Explanation: An aura is the sensory warning sign of the initial electrical discharge in the brain, preceding the tonic-clonic phase.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q91.Peptic Ulcer Disease (stomach ulcer) typically presents with:
A.Burning epigastric pain that improves after eating
B.Lower left quadrant pain
C.Fever and chills
D.Pain radiating to the back
A. Burning epigastric pain that improves after eating
Explanation: Gastric acid irritates the ulcer. Eating food neutralizes the acid temporarily, relieving the pain. (Conversely, gallbladder pain worsens after eating).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q92.Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a brain disorder caused by a lack of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine), most commonly seen in:
A.Chronic alcoholics
B.Diabetics
C.Stroke victims
D.Drug addicts
A. Chronic alcoholics
Explanation: Chronic alcohol abuse leads to malnutrition and thiamine deficiency, causing confusion, ataxia (loss of coordination), and memory loss.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q93.You are treating a patient stung by a jellyfish. You should:
A.Rub the wound with a towel
B.Rinse with vinegar or hot water
C.Apply ice
D.Urinate on it
B. Rinse with vinegar or hot water
Explanation: Vinegar neutralizes the nematocysts (stingers). Hot water denatures the toxins. Rubbing or fresh water can trigger remaining stingers to fire.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q94.A patient with a suspected Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) in the leg will complain of:
A.Numbness and paralysis of the foot
B.Swelling, redness, and pain in the calf
C.Cold, pale skin
D.Bruising
B. Swelling, redness, and pain in the calf
Explanation: A clot in the deep veins blocks return flow, causing the leg to swell, turn red, and become painful. It is a risk for Pulmonary Embolism.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q95.Which of the following is a sign of Bell's Palsy that distinguishes it from a Stroke?
A.Slurred speech
B.Drooling
C.Inability to wrinkle the forehead on the affected side
D.Arm weakness
C. Inability to wrinkle the forehead on the affected side
Explanation: Bell's Palsy (facial nerve inflammation) paralyzes the ENTIRE side of the face, including the forehead. A stroke usually spares the forehead (the patient can still raise both eyebrows).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q96.Peritonitis (inflammation of the abdominal lining) presents with:
A.Soft, non-tender abdomen
B.A rigid, board-like abdomen and rebound tenderness
C.Hunger
D.Diarrhea
B. A rigid, board-like abdomen and rebound tenderness
Explanation: When the peritoneum is irritated (blood/infection), the abdominal muscles spasm to protect the organs, creating a rigid 'board-like' feel.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q97.A patient who has taken a hallucinogen (LSD/PCP) is acting paranoid. You should:
A.Enter their personal space to comfort them
B.Use a calm, soothing voice and minimize sensory stimulation (lights/sirens)
C.Agree with their hallucinations
D.Restrain them immediately
B. Use a calm, soothing voice and minimize sensory stimulation (lights/sirens)
Explanation: Sensory overload can cause a 'bad trip' or violence. Reduce stimuli and keep them calm. Do not validate hallucinations ('I don't see the snakes, but I believe you do').
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q98.Cyanide poisoning (often from burning plastics/carpets) blocks the body's ability to:
A.Transport oxygen (Hemoglobin)
B.Use oxygen at the cellular level
C.Inhale
D.Clot blood
B. Use oxygen at the cellular level
Explanation: Carbon Monoxide blocks transport. Cyanide blocks cellular respiration (the cells have oxygen but can't use it).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q99.The phrase 'worst headache of my life' (Thunderclap Headache) is a red flag for:
A.Migraine
B.Tension headache
C.Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (Aneurysm rupture)
D.Sinus infection
C. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (Aneurysm rupture)
Explanation: Sudden onset 10/10 headache is a brain bleed until proven otherwise.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q100.You are assisting with the delivery of twins. After the first baby is born:
A.Clamp and cut the cord, then wait for the second delivery
B.Leave the baby attached and wait
C.Pull on the cord to deliver the placenta
D.Transport immediately
A. Clamp and cut the cord, then wait for the second delivery
Explanation: Treat the first baby as a standard birth. Clamp/cut the cord to allow space for the second delivery. Labor will usually resume shortly for the second twin.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q101.Chickenpox (Varicella) is characterized by:
A.A fluid-filled vesicular rash that itches
B.A stiff neck
C.A barking cough
D.Jaundice
A. A fluid-filled vesicular rash that itches
Explanation: The rash looks like 'dewdrops on a rose petal'. It is highly contagious via airborne droplets and contact.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q102.Pharmacokinetics in the elderly is altered because:
A.They weigh less
B.Liver and kidney function decrease, slowing drug metabolism and excretion
C.They have faster metabolisms
D.They are immune to drugs
B. Liver and kidney function decrease, slowing drug metabolism and excretion
Explanation: Drugs stay in the system longer in geriatric patients, increasing the risk of toxicity and overdose even at normal doses.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q103.A patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may present with:
A.Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia
B.Dysuria (painful urination), frequency, and cloudy urine
C.Chest pain
D.Visual disturbances
B. Dysuria (painful urination), frequency, and cloudy urine
Explanation: UTIs irritate the bladder (cystitis), causing burning pain and the frequent urge to urinate.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q104.A 'silent MI' (heart attack without chest pain) is most common in:
A.Young men
B.Athletes
C.Women, the elderly, and diabetics
D.Children
C. Women, the elderly, and diabetics
Explanation: Diabetic neuropathy can blunt pain nerves. Elderly/women often present with weakness, dyspnea, or nausea instead of pain.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q105.Addison's Disease (Adrenal Insufficiency) can lead to 'Addisonian Crisis', which presents as:
A.Hypertension and weight gain
B.Profound shock (hypotension) and electrolyte imbalance
C.Hyperactivity
D.High blood sugar
B. Profound shock (hypotension) and electrolyte imbalance
Explanation: The adrenal glands fail to produce cortisol/aldosterone. Stress triggers a crisis of low BP and shock that is unresponsive to fluids alone.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q106.Lyme Disease is transmitted by:
A.Mosquitoes
B.Ticks
C.Spiders
D.Fleas
B. Ticks
Explanation: Deer ticks carry the bacteria. The classic sign is a 'bullseye' rash (Erythema Migrans).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q107.A patient pulled from cold water has no pulse. You should:
A.Pronounce them dead
B.Start CPR and defibrillate if indicated; 'they are not dead until they are warm and dead'
C.Warm them up before starting CPR
D.Give rescue breaths only
B. Start CPR and defibrillate if indicated; 'they are not dead until they are warm and dead'
Explanation: Hypothermia protects the brain. Patients can survive long submersions. Resuscitation continues until the body is rewarmed.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q108.Which of the following describes the postictal state?
A.The phase during the seizure
B.The aura before the seizure
C.The period of confusion and recovery following a seizure
D.The cause of the seizure
C. The period of confusion and recovery following a seizure
Explanation: The brain is 'rebooting'. The patient is lethargic, confused, and may be combative. This confirms a seizure occurred.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q109.A Stimulant overdose (Cocaine/Meth) typically presents with:
A.Pinpoint pupils and bradycardia
B.Dilated pupils, tachycardia, hypertension, and agitation
C.Drooling and urination
D.Sleepiness
B. Dilated pupils, tachycardia, hypertension, and agitation
Explanation: Stimulants activate the Sympathetic Nervous System (Fight or Flight): Big pupils, fast heart, high BP.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q110.Pancreatitis is often caused by:
A.Gallstones or heavy alcohol use
B.Stress
C.Diabetes
D.Smoking
A. Gallstones or heavy alcohol use
Explanation: Pancreatitis causes severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. Alcoholism and gallstones are the two main triggers.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q111.A patient with anemia may have a pulse oximetry reading that is:
A.Low
B.Normal (false normal)
C.Unreadable
D.Fluctuating
B. Normal (false normal)
Explanation: Pulse oximeters measure the saturation of available hemoglobin. In anemia, the hemoglobin is 100% saturated, but there isn't enough of it. The SpO2 reads 100% even though the patient is hypoxic.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q112.Urinary retention in an elderly male is most commonly caused by:
A.Kidney stones
B.Enlarged prostate (BPH)
C.UTI
D.Dehydration
B. Enlarged prostate (BPH)
Explanation: Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) constricts the urethra, making it difficult or impossible to urinate.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q113.The primary risk of a premature infant (<37 weeks) is:
A.Large size
B.Respiratory distress due to immature lungs
C.Diabetes
D.High blood pressure
B. Respiratory distress due to immature lungs
Explanation: Premature lungs lack surfactant, leading to collapse (atelectasis) and distress. Keep them warm and oxygenated.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q114.When assessing a toddler for dehydration, you should look for:
A.Tears when crying
B.Absence of tears when crying and dry mucous membranes
C.Bulging fontanelle
D.Increased urine output
B. Absence of tears when crying and dry mucous membranes
Explanation: Lack of tears is a reliable sign of significant dehydration in children.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q115.In a drowning incident, 'foam' in the airway is caused by:
A.The patient eating soap
B.Surfactant mixing with water
C.Stomach acid
D.Blood
B. Surfactant mixing with water
Explanation: Do NOT waste time suctioning foam. It will keep coming. Ventilate through it with positive pressure (BVM).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q116.Bronchiolitis (RSV) is most common in:
A.The elderly
B.Infants and toddlers (<2 years)
C.Teenagers
D.Adults
B. Infants and toddlers (<2 years)
Explanation: Viral infection of the small airways. It mimics asthma but does not respond well to albuterol.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q117.A patient with 'Acute Psychosis' has:
A.A headache
B.Lost touch with reality (delusions/hallucinations)
C.Depression
D.Anxiety
B. Lost touch with reality (delusions/hallucinations)
Explanation: Psychosis involves a break from reality. Ensure safety for yourself and the patient.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q118.Ovarian Cyst rupture typically presents as:
A.Sudden, severe, unilateral lower abdominal pain
B.Pain radiating to the back
C.Vomiting blood
D.Fever
A. Sudden, severe, unilateral lower abdominal pain
Explanation: Often mimics appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy. History is key (LMP).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q119.The primary way to prevent the spread of Influenza is:
A.Wearing gloves
B.Hand washing and vaccination
C.Taking antibiotics
D.Eating well
B. Hand washing and vaccination
Explanation: Standard hygiene and vaccination are the most effective preventatives. Antibiotics do not treat viruses.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q120.Medical causes for altered mental status can be remembered with the mnemonic:
A.SAMPLE
B.OPQRST
C.AEIOU-TIPS
D.DCAP-BTLS
C. AEIOU-TIPS
Explanation: A=Alcohol/Acidosis, E=Epilepsy, I=Insulin, O=Overdose, U=Uremia, T=Trauma, I=Infection, P=Psych/Poison, S=Stroke/Shock.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q121.The umbilical cord contains:
A.Two arteries and one vein
B.Two veins and one artery
C.One artery and one vein
D.Two arteries and two veins
A. Two arteries and one vein
Explanation: The umbilical cord normally contains two arteries (carrying deoxygenated blood away from the fetus) and one vein (carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q122.A patient with a history of seizures is found conscious but confused and lethargic. This state is known as:
A.The aura
B.The tonic phase
C.The postictal state
D.Status epilepticus
C. The postictal state
Explanation: The postictal state is the period of recovery following a seizure, characterized by confusion, lethargy, and sometimes combativeness as the brain resets.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q123.Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) most commonly affects:
A.The kidneys
B.The uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries
C.The bladder
D.The vagina only
B. The uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries
Explanation: PID is an infection of the upper female reproductive organs, often caused by untreated STDs like Chlamydia or Gonorrhea.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q124.A patient with severe abdominal pain describes it as 'tearing' and radiating to the back. You should suspect:
A.Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
B.Kidney stones
C.Appendicitis
D.Gallstones
A. Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Explanation: Tearing pain radiating to the back is the classic presentation of an aortic dissection or rupture. Unequal femoral pulses may also be present.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q125.Which of the following is a sign of effective ventilation in a newborn?
A.Heart rate increases to >100 bpm
B.The skin turns pink
C.Chest rise is visible
D.The baby cries
A. Heart rate increases to >100 bpm
Explanation: While chest rise confirms air is entering, the most important indicator of *effective* oxygenation/ventilation in a compromised newborn is a rapid increase in heart rate.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q126.Which condition is characterized by the erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum?
A.Peptic Ulcer Disease
B.Gastroenteritis
C.Diverticulitis
D.Cholecystitis
A. Peptic Ulcer Disease
Explanation: Peptic ulcers are sores in the lining of the stomach/duodenum caused by acid erosion, often due to H. pylori infection or NSAID use.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q127.Common signs of a narcotic (opioid) overdose include:
A.Dilated pupils, tachycardia, agitation
B.Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, coma
C.Nystagmus, gum hypertrophy, hallucinations
D.Hyperthermia, rigidity, tachycardia
B. Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, coma
Explanation: The opioid triad is unconsciousness (coma), respiratory depression (slow/shallow breathing), and pinpoint pupils (miosis).
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q128.A patient with a shunt for hydrocephalus (VP shunt) presents with a fever and neck stiffness. You should suspect:
A.Shunt obstruction
B.Meningitis
C.Dehydration
D.Migraine
B. Meningitis
Explanation: VP shunts drain into the abdomen. If infected, bacteria can travel up the shunt to the brain, causing meningitis. Fever + stiff neck = Meningitis concern.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q129.Which of the following is a common cause of behavioral emergencies?
A.Low blood sugar (Hypoglycemia)
B.Hypoxia
C.Head trauma
D.All of the above
D. All of the above
Explanation: You must rule out medical causes (hypoglycemia, hypoxia, trauma, toxins) before assuming a patient's behavior is purely psychiatric.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry
Q130.When assessing a patient with a gynecological emergency, the most important assessment tool is:
A.The visual exam
B.The patient's history
C.Palpation of the abdomen
D.Vital signs
B. The patient's history
Explanation: History (LMP, possibility of pregnancy, vaginal discharge, pain description) guides your differential diagnosis. Physical exam is limited in the field.
Unlock on iOS
Join 1,000+ users passing the EMT National Registry

Want all 500 questions?

Download VoltExam — $17.99 Lifetime

Offline access, 500+ questions, built-in calculators. One-time unlock, no subscription.

Download on the App Store

Download VoltExam — $17.99 Lifetime

More EMT National Registry Exam Topics