Q: In START Triage, a patient who is not breathing is repositioned. If they still do not breathe, they are tagged:

Apnea after simple airway repositioning = Deceased (Black). Move to the next patient.

Q: The 'hot zone' in a hazmat incident is:

Hot zone = Contamination. Warm zone = Decon. Cold zone = Safe/Command/Treatment.

Q: To prove 'Negligence', four elements must be present: Duty to Act, Breach of Duty, Damages, and:

You must prove that the breach of duty *caused* the damages (proximate cause).

Q: When driving an ambulance with lights and sirens, you should:

Driving 'Code 3' asks for the right of way, it does not grant it. You must ensure the intersection is clear before proceeding against a light.

Question 1

Which type of consent allows you to treat an unconscious patient?

Accepted Answer

Implied consent assumes that a rational patient would want to be treated for life-threatening conditions if they were able to speak.

Question 2

Upon arriving at a scene with hazardous materials, your first action should be to:

Accepted Answer

Safety first. You cannot help if you become a victim. Stay uphill and upwind to avoid exposure before attempting anything else.

Question 3

What is the primary role of the Medical Director?

Accepted Answer

EMTs operate under the license of a physician Medical Director. Protocols (offline) and direct contact (online) are the authority to practice.

Question 4

Which of the following constitutes 'Abandonment'?

Accepted Answer

Abandonment occurs when you terminate care without the patient's consent or without transferring to a provider of equal/higher level.

Question 5

The single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is:

Accepted Answer

According to the CDC, vigorous hand washing is the #1 way to break the chain of infection.

Question 6

In the START Triage system, a patient who is breathing 10 times a minute, has a radial pulse, and follows commands is tagged:

Accepted Answer

Yellow (Delayed). Respirations <30? Yes. Perfusion (pulse) present? Yes. Mental Status (follows commands)? Yes. They are stable enough to wait.

Question 7

In START Triage, a patient who is not breathing is repositioned. If they still do not breathe, they are tagged:

Accepted Answer

Apnea after simple airway repositioning = Deceased (Black). Move to the next patient.

Question 8

The 'hot zone' in a hazmat incident is:

Accepted Answer

Hot zone = Contamination. Warm zone = Decon. Cold zone = Safe/Command/Treatment.

Question 9

To prove 'Negligence', four elements must be present: Duty to Act, Breach of Duty, Damages, and:

Accepted Answer

You must prove that the breach of duty *caused* the damages (proximate cause).

Question 10

When driving an ambulance with lights and sirens, you should:

Accepted Answer

Driving 'Code 3' asks for the right of way, it does not grant it. You must ensure the intersection is clear before proceeding against a light.

Question 11

Portable radios typically operate in the:

Accepted Answer

Portable (handheld) radios have low power (1-5 watts) and limited range compared to mobile (vehicle) radios (20-50 watts).

Question 12

Which lifting technique uses the legs (not the back) to lift, keeping the weight close to the body?

Accepted Answer

The Power Lift (squat lift) keeps the back locked and uses the large leg muscles to prevent injury.

Question 13

HIPAA regulates:

Accepted Answer

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act protects Protected Health Information (PHI).

Question 14

An 'Emergency Move' (like a shirt drag) is used only when:

Accepted Answer

Emergency moves sacrifice spinal protection for speed to save a life from imminent danger.

Question 15

The diamond-shaped placard on a tanker truck indicates:

Accepted Answer

DOT placards identify hazmat classes (e.g., Flammable, Corrosive) and UN numbers.

Question 16

In the Incident Command System (ICS), the person in charge of the entire operation is the:

Accepted Answer

The IC has overall responsibility for the incident. All other sections (Ops, Logistics, Planning, Finance) report up to the IC.

Question 17

You are treating a competent adult who refuses care. You should:

Accepted Answer

Competent adults have the right to refuse (Autonomy). You must ensure it is an *informed* refusal and document it thoroughly.

Question 18

When landing a medical helicopter, the landing zone (LZ) should be at least:

Accepted Answer

Standard LZ is 100x100 feet, flat, free of debris/wires. (60x60 is absolute minimum for some small aircraft, but 100x100 is the standard safety answer).

Question 19

Which of the following is an example of an 'Offline' medical direction?

Accepted Answer

Offline = Written protocols/standing orders. Online = Direct voice communication (radio/phone).

Question 20

Cleaning involves removing visible dirt. Disinfection involves:

Accepted Answer

Disinfection kills pathogens but not spores. Sterilization kills everything (spores included). Ambulances are typically disinfected.

Question 21

When approaching a school bus with red lights flashing and stop arm extended, you should:

Accepted Answer

Even emergency vehicles must stop for school buses loading/unloading children to prevent tragedy.

Question 22

The 'span of control' in ICS suggests that one supervisor can effectively manage:

Accepted Answer

To maintain command integrity, a supervisor should manage no more than 7 subordinates (5 is optimal).

Question 23

Which statement best describes a 'Do Not Resuscitate' (DNR) order?

Accepted Answer

DNR only applies to cardiac arrest (no CPR). It does NOT mean 'do not treat' pain, infection, or breathing difficulty while the patient is alive.

Question 24

When communicating on the radio, you should use:

Accepted Answer

NIMS/ICS standards require Plain English to ensure interoperability between agencies (Police/Fire/EMS) who may use different codes.

Question 25

Standard Precautions (BSI) should be taken:

Accepted Answer

Treat every patient as potentially infectious. Gloves and eye protection are the minimum standard for patient contact.

Question 26

When approaching a helicopter, you should typically approach from:

Accepted Answer

Approaching from the front ensures the pilot can see you. The tail rotor is invisible when spinning and is the most dangerous part of the aircraft. Always approach from the downhill side if on a slope.

Question 27

Which document allows a patient to refuse resuscitation in the event of cardiac arrest?

Accepted Answer

A valid DNR is the specific medical order that instructs providers to withhold CPR. A Living Will or POA may guide decisions but does not automatically stop EMS from performing CPR without a DNR present.

Question 28

The 'Good Samaritan Law' generally protects:

Accepted Answer

These laws protect laypeople/off-duty pros from liability as long as they act reasonably and do not expect payment. On-duty EMTs have a 'duty to act' and are not covered.

Question 29

You are at a mass casualty incident (MCI). A patient has a broken leg and cannot walk but has normal respirations and a pulse. They are tagged:

Accepted Answer

Green = Walking Wounded. Yellow = Delayed (can't walk but stable ABCs). Red = Immediate (ABC problem). Black = Dead.

Question 30

If you transport a competent patient against their will, you could be charged with:

Accepted Answer

Transporting a competent adult without consent is illegal confinement (kidnapping/false imprisonment). Touching them without consent is Battery.

Question 31

A 'repeater' is a device that:

Accepted Answer

Repeaters extend the range of portable radios by boosting the signal over large geographic areas or obstacles.

Question 32

Which of the following creates the highest risk of back injury to the EMT?

Accepted Answer

Reaching away from the body (increasing lever arm) and twisting the spine while under load are the primary causes of disc injuries.

Question 33

The safest way to move a patient down a flight of stairs is:

Accepted Answer

A stair chair allows the patient to be moved in a sitting position, rolling on tracks, which is safer and easier than carrying a backboard.

Question 34

When parking the ambulance at a scene with a hazardous chemical spill, you should park:

Accepted Answer

Park uphill so chemicals don't flow toward you, and upwind so fumes blow away from you. Distance is your friend.

Question 35

Decontamination (Decon) of patients at a hazmat scene takes place in the:

Accepted Answer

The Warm Zone (Contamination Reduction Zone) is where cleaning/decon happens before the patient is moved to the Cold Zone (Safe) for treatment/transport.

Question 36

Which entity regulates radio communications in the United States?

Accepted Answer

The FCC licenses and assigns radio frequencies to EMS agencies.

Question 37

An EMT's 'Scope of Practice' is defined by:

Accepted Answer

Scope of Practice is the legal description of what an EMT *can* do (defined by state law). Protocols define what an EMT *should* do.

Question 38

When documenting a patient care report (PCR), subjective information includes:

Accepted Answer

Subjective = Symptoms reported by patient (Opinion/Feeling). Objective = Signs measured by EMT (Fact/Observation).

Question 39

If you make a mistake on a paper PCR, you should:

Accepted Answer

Legal documents must not be altered in a way that hides the original entry. A single line preserves the record while correcting the error.

Question 40

The 'rule of thumb' for hazmat incidents means:

Accepted Answer

This is a quick way to estimate safe distance. If you can see the scene around your thumb, you are too close.

Question 41

Which of the following is considered 'Standard of Care'?

Accepted Answer

Standard of Care is the legal yardstick used to judge whether an EMT was negligent.

Question 42

You are at a crime scene. You must move a piece of furniture to reach the patient. You should:

Accepted Answer

Patient care is the priority, but preserving evidence is crucial. Minimize disturbance, and report any changes to law enforcement.

Question 43

When driving an ambulance, most accidents occur at:

Accepted Answer

Intersections are the most dangerous points due to conflicting traffic signals and drivers failing to yield to sirens.

Question 44

Hydroplaning can occur at speeds as low as:

Accepted Answer

Ambulances can lose contact with the road (hydroplane) on wet surfaces at speeds >30 mph. Slow down in rain.

Question 45

A 'duplex' radio system allows:

Accepted Answer

Simplex = one way at a time (walkie-talkie). Duplex = both ways at once (phone).

Question 46

High-visibility vests should be worn:

Accepted Answer

Federal standards require ANSI-compliant high-vis vests for all responders working near traffic to prevent being struck.

Question 47

During an MCI, the 'Triage Officer' is responsible for:

Accepted Answer

The Triage Officer's sole job is to assess and tag patients rapidly. They do not stop to treat (except for simple airway/hemorrhage fixes).

Question 48

Which patient is a 'Red' tag in START triage?

Accepted Answer

Respirations > 30/min indicates shock/distress and is an automatic RED tag.

Question 49

The 'JumpSTART' triage system is designed for:

Accepted Answer

JumpSTART modifies the adult START criteria (like respiratory rates) to fit pediatric physiology.

Question 50

What is the primary danger of a 'trench rescue'?

Accepted Answer

Vibration from rescuers/vehicles can cause the trench walls to collapse again, burying the rescuers. Shoring must be in place before entry.

Question 51

Organ donation requires:

Accepted Answer

Organs die without oxygen. The EMS role is to perform full resuscitation to maintain perfusion until the patient reaches the hospital.

Question 52

Libel is defined as:

Accepted Answer

Libel = Literature (Written). Slander = Spoken. Both are forms of defamation.

Question 53

An 'emancipated minor' is:

Accepted Answer

Emancipated minors can legally consent to or refuse medical treatment.

Question 54

Which grip should be used when lifting a stretcher?

Accepted Answer

The Power Grip ensures maximum surface area contact and prevents the stretcher from slipping out of sweaty hands.

Question 55

The presence of 'C-Diff' (Clostridium difficile) requires cleaning with:

Accepted Answer

C-Diff forms spores that are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers. Bleach is required to kill the spores.

Question 56

When assessing a patient, you ask 'Can you tell me where you are right now?' This tests:

Accepted Answer

Orientation x4 covers Person, Place, Time, and Event.

Question 57

The 'PCR' stands for:

Accepted Answer

The PCR is the legal medical record of the encounter.

Question 58

Which of the following creates a vacuum to stabilize a fracture?

Accepted Answer

Vacuum splints conform to the deformity when air is pumped out, becoming rigid. They are excellent for angulated fractures.

Question 59

Terrorism involving 'B-NICE' refers to:

Accepted Answer

B-NICE is the mnemonic for the five categories of terrorist weapons of mass destruction (WMD).

Question 60

Sarin gas is a:

Accepted Answer

Sarin is a potent nerve agent (organophosphate) causing SLUDGE symptoms and respiratory arrest.

Question 61

What is the primary role of the 'Safety Officer' at a hazardous materials incident?

Accepted Answer

The Safety Officer has the absolute authority to stop any operation if they deem it unsafe for rescuers.

Question 62

When cutting the battery cables of a vehicle at a crash scene, you should cut:

Accepted Answer

Cut the negative (black/ground) cable first. If you cut the positive (red) first and your tool touches the frame, you will create a short circuit/spark.

Question 63

The KED (Kendrick Extrication Device) is used for:

Accepted Answer

The KED is a vest-style device designed to immobilize the head, neck, and torso of a stable patient sitting in a car seat before moving them to a backboard.

Question 64

Which of the following describes 'Critical Incident Stress Debriefing' (CISD)?

Accepted Answer

CISD helps prevent PTSD by allowing responders to process traumatic events in a safe, peer-supported environment.

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