Insurance P&C Exam
General Insurance Concepts Practice Questions
60 practice questions with detailed explanations — aligned to the Insurance P&C Exam.
Master General Insurance Concepts to boost your score on the Insurance P&C Exam. Each question below mirrors the style and difficulty of real exam questions, complete with detailed explanations so you understand the why behind every answer. Work through all 60 questions, review any that trip you up, and use the related topics below to round out your preparation.
Q1.What type of risk involves only the possibility of loss or no loss, with no chance of gain?
A.Speculative riskB.Pure riskC.Investment riskD.Diversifiable risk✓B. Pure riskExplanation: Pure risk involves only the chance of loss or no loss. Insurance is designed to cover pure risk rather than situations that also include a chance for profit.
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Q2.Which of the following is the best example of speculative risk?
A.A house being damaged by fireB.A driver being injured in an accidentC.Buying stock in a startup companyD.A warehouse being struck by lightning✓C. Buying stock in a startup companyExplanation: Speculative risk includes the possibility of gain, loss, or no change. Buying stock can produce a profit or a loss, so it is not a pure risk typically handled by insurance.
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Q3.In insurance terminology, the direct cause of a loss is called a:
A.HazardB.ExposureC.PerilD.Warranty✓C. PerilExplanation: A peril is the actual cause of loss, such as fire, lightning, or theft. A hazard is a condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a peril causing damage.
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Q4.A condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss is known as a:
A.PerilB.HazardC.WarrantyD.Limit✓B. HazardExplanation: A hazard is any condition that makes a loss more likely or more severe. Hazards are often classified as physical, moral, or morale hazards.
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Q5.A broken stair railing in an apartment building is an example of which type of hazard?
A.Physical hazardB.Morale hazardC.Moral hazardD.Legal hazard✓A. Physical hazardExplanation: A physical hazard is a tangible condition that increases the chance of loss. A broken railing is a physical defect that can directly contribute to an injury.
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Q6.An applicant with a history of fraudulent claims represents which type of hazard?
A.Physical hazardB.Morale hazardC.Moral hazardD.Catastrophic hazard✓C. Moral hazardExplanation: A moral hazard arises from dishonesty or bad character that increases the chance of loss. A history of fraud indicates a greater chance of intentional or dishonest claim behavior.
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Q7.Carelessness that results because a person knows insurance exists is called:
A.Moral hazardB.Morale hazardC.Physical hazardD.Particular risk✓B. Morale hazardExplanation: A morale hazard involves carelessness or indifference to loss because insurance protection is in place. It differs from moral hazard, which involves dishonesty or intent to cause loss.
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Q8.Permanently discontinuing a dangerous activity in order to eliminate the chance of loss is an example of:
A.Risk reductionB.Risk transferC.Risk avoidanceD.Risk retention✓C. Risk avoidanceExplanation: Risk avoidance means eliminating the exposure entirely so the loss cannot occur. If the activity is no longer undertaken, the associated risk is avoided rather than insured or reduced.
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Q9.Installing smoke detectors and a sprinkler system is an example of:
A.Risk retentionB.Risk reductionC.Risk transferD.Risk avoidance✓B. Risk reductionExplanation: Risk reduction lowers the frequency or severity of loss. Safety devices do not eliminate the risk, but they help control it.
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Q10.Choosing to absorb small losses out of pocket instead of insuring them is known as:
A.Risk retentionB.Risk reductionC.Risk transferD.Risk sharing✓A. Risk retentionExplanation: Risk retention means keeping the financial responsibility for a loss. Deductibles are a common example because the insured retains part of the loss amount.
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Q11.Purchasing an insurance policy is most directly an example of:
A.Risk transferB.Risk avoidanceC.Risk retentionD.Risk elimination✓A. Risk transferExplanation: Insurance transfers certain financial consequences of loss from the insured to the insurer. The chance of loss still exists, but the economic burden is shifted by contract.
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Q12.What insurance principle requires a person to have a lawful financial interest in the property or person insured?
A.SubrogationB.ContributionC.Insurable interestD.Utmost good faith✓C. Insurable interestExplanation: Insurable interest exists when the policyholder would suffer a financial loss if the insured property were damaged or the insured event occurred. This principle helps prevent insurance from becoming a wagering contract.
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Q13.The principle designed to restore an insured to approximately the same financial condition that existed before a loss is called:
A.IndemnityB.WarrantyC.ConsiderationD.Concealment✓A. IndemnityExplanation: The principle of indemnity is intended to prevent the insured from profiting from a covered loss. Insurance should make the insured whole, not better off than before the loss occurred.
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Q14.The principle that requires both parties to act honestly and disclose material facts is known as:
A.Utmost good faithB.SubrogationC.WaiverD.Estoppel✓A. Utmost good faithExplanation: Utmost good faith requires honesty and full disclosure of material facts by both the insurer and the insured. Accurate underwriting depends on this principle, especially during the application process.
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Q15.An insurer's right to recover from a negligent third party after paying a claim is called:
A.ContributionB.SubrogationC.AppraisalD.Arbitration✓B. SubrogationExplanation: Subrogation allows the insurer to step into the insured's shoes and pursue the party responsible for the loss. This helps prevent duplicate recovery and places responsibility on the wrongdoer.
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Q16.When more than one insurer covers the same loss and each shares in payment, the principle involved is:
A.SubrogationB.IndemnityC.ContributionD.Rescission✓C. ContributionExplanation: Contribution applies when multiple insurers cover the same interest and loss. It prevents one insurer from paying the entire claim when other insurers are also liable.
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Q17.Insurance contracts are considered contracts of adhesion because:
A.Both parties negotiate all terms equallyB.They are written by one party and ambiguities are generally construed against that drafterC.They always require witnesses to be enforceableD.They can be canceled by either party at any time without notice✓B. They are written by one party and ambiguities are generally construed against that drafterExplanation: An adhesion contract is drafted primarily by one party, usually the insurer. Because the insured has little ability to negotiate the wording, ambiguities are generally interpreted in favor of the insured.
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Q18.Insurance is described as an aleatory contract because:
A.Only one party makes an enforceable promiseB.Both parties exchange equal valuesC.Performance depends on an uncertain event and the values exchanged may be unequalD.The contract must be in writing to be valid✓C. Performance depends on an uncertain event and the values exchanged may be unequalExplanation: An aleatory contract depends on an uncertain event, such as a loss occurring. The insured may pay a small premium and receive a much larger benefit, or receive nothing if no loss occurs.
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Q19.Insurance is considered a unilateral contract because:
A.Only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise to performB.Only the insured has obligations under the policyC.Both parties must promise equal performanceD.The contract can be changed verbally at any time✓A. Only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise to performExplanation: In a unilateral contract, only one party makes an enforceable promise. After the premium is paid, the insurer is legally obligated to pay covered claims if policy conditions are satisfied.
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Q20.Insurance policies are conditional contracts because:
A.Coverage exists only if the insured satisfies certain policy requirementsB.The insurer may ignore the policy termsC.Premiums are optional after the first paymentD.Claims are always paid regardless of policy conditions✓A. Coverage exists only if the insured satisfies certain policy requirementsExplanation: Insurance contracts require the insured to meet conditions such as paying premiums, giving notice of loss, and cooperating in the investigation. If required conditions are not met, coverage may be limited or denied.
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Q21.Which principle allows insurers to predict losses more accurately by pooling a large number of similar exposure units?
A.SubrogationB.Law of large numbersC.CoinsuranceD.Estoppel✓B. Law of large numbersExplanation: The law of large numbers helps insurers estimate expected losses by analyzing many similar risks. The larger the pool of similar exposures, the more predictable overall loss experience becomes.
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Q22.After several neighborhood burglaries, a homeowner installs deadbolts, motion lights, and an alarm system. Which risk management technique is the homeowner using?
A.Risk retentionB.Risk reductionC.Risk avoidanceD.Risk assumption✓B. Risk reductionExplanation: The homeowner is reducing the likelihood and possible severity of loss by adding protective devices. The exposure still exists, but the controls make a burglary less likely or less severe.
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Q23.A person attempts to buy an insurance policy on a neighbor's boat because it is stored near his dock. Why would the insurer reject the application?
A.The applicant lacks insurable interestB.The boat is not eligible for insuranceC.Only businesses can insure boatsD.The applicant must own both the dock and the boat✓A. The applicant lacks insurable interestExplanation: The applicant would not suffer a direct financial loss if the neighbor's boat were damaged, so insurable interest is absent. Insurance requires a lawful financial stake in the subject of insurance.
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Q24.An applicant intentionally leaves two prior fire losses off the insurance application. Which principle has been violated?
A.ContributionB.Utmost good faithC.IndemnityD.Subrogation✓B. Utmost good faithExplanation: Utmost good faith requires disclosure of material facts that could affect underwriting or pricing. Prior fire losses are material, so intentionally omitting them is a serious breach of that duty.
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Q25.An insured has a covered loss of $9,000 and a $1,000 deductible. Assuming the loss is within the policy limit, how much should the insurer pay?
A.$10,000B.$9,000C.$8,000D.$7,000✓C. $8,000Explanation: A deductible is the portion of a covered loss the insured must absorb. The insurer pays the covered loss minus the deductible, so $9,000 less $1,000 equals $8,000.
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Q26.A manufacturer buys a liability policy so the insurer will defend and pay covered lawsuits. This is primarily an example of:
A.Risk avoidanceB.Risk transferC.Risk reductionD.Risk retention✓B. Risk transferExplanation: By purchasing insurance, the manufacturer shifts certain financial consequences of liability claims to the insurer. The possibility of being sued remains, but the economic burden is transferred by contract.
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Q27.Boxes stacked in front of an electrical panel make a fire more likely and more severe. This situation is best classified as a:
A.PerilB.Physical hazardC.Morale hazardD.Moral hazard✓B. Physical hazardExplanation: The stacked boxes are a tangible condition that increases the chance or severity of loss, so they are a physical hazard. The peril would be the fire itself, not the obstructed panel.
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Q28.A driver with broad insurance coverage starts parking carelessly because she assumes the insurer will pay for damage. This behavior is an example of:
A.Moral hazardB.Morale hazardC.Physical hazardD.Concealment✓B. Morale hazardExplanation: Morale hazard refers to carelessness or indifference to loss because insurance exists. The driver's behavior is not intentional fraud, so it is not moral hazard.
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Q29.A business owner stages a fake theft and submits a claim for merchandise that was never stolen. This is best described as:
A.A morale hazardB.A physical hazardC.A moral hazardD.A pure risk✓C. A moral hazardExplanation: A moral hazard involves dishonesty or character defects that increase the chance of loss. Intentionally staging a loss and filing a false claim is a classic example of moral hazard.
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Q30.Two insurers cover the same building and each pays part of a covered fire loss according to its share of coverage. Which principle is being applied?
A.SubrogationB.ContributionC.IndemnityD.Replacement✓B. ContributionExplanation: Contribution requires insurers that cover the same loss to share payment. This prevents one insurer from bearing the full burden when another insurer is also liable.
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Q31.After paying a claim for water damage caused by a negligent contractor, the insurer sues the contractor to recover what it paid. Which principle supports this action?
A.SubrogationB.IndemnityC.WaiverD.Retention✓A. SubrogationExplanation: Subrogation allows the insurer to pursue the negligent third party after paying the insured. This helps place responsibility on the wrongdoer and avoids duplicate recovery by the insured.
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Q32.A theft exclusion in a policy is worded ambiguously, and a court interprets it in favor of the insured. Which contract characteristic most directly explains this result?
A.AleatoryB.UnilateralC.AdhesionD.Conditional✓C. AdhesionExplanation: Because insurance is a contract of adhesion, ambiguous language is generally construed against the drafter, usually the insurer. This protects insureds when policy wording is unclear.
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Q33.A customer is injured on the last day of a liability policy period, but the claim is not reported until one month later. Under an occurrence form, why is the claim generally covered?
A.Because the claim was reported within 60 daysB.Because the injury occurred during the policy periodC.Because all occurrence forms cover claims forever without limitD.Because the insured can choose any policy period for coverage✓B. Because the injury occurred during the policy periodExplanation: Occurrence coverage is triggered by when the bodily injury or property damage happens, not when the claim is reported. If the accident occurred during the policy period, that occurrence form generally responds.
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Q34.An insured fails to provide prompt notice of loss and refuses to submit requested documents. Which contract characteristic gives the insurer grounds to deny or limit coverage if the failure is material?
A.AleatoryB.ConditionalC.PersonalD.Representational✓B. ConditionalExplanation: Insurance contracts are conditional, meaning certain duties must be met for coverage to apply. Notice of loss and cooperation are common policy conditions that materially affect claim handling.
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Q35.Why does an insurer prefer to insure a large number of similar homes rather than a small group of very different properties?
A.To eliminate all underwriting judgmentB.To make losses more predictable under the law of large numbersC.To avoid using deductiblesD.To guarantee that no claims will occur✓B. To make losses more predictable under the law of large numbersExplanation: A large number of similar exposure units produces more reliable loss data. This improves the insurer's ability to estimate expected losses and set appropriate rates.
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Q36.A business decides it will pay the first $2,500 of any minor property loss itself and insure amounts above that. The first $2,500 is an example of:
A.Risk transferB.Risk reductionC.Risk retentionD.Risk avoidance✓C. Risk retentionExplanation: The business is retaining a portion of the risk by agreeing to absorb smaller losses. This is similar to how a deductible leaves part of the loss with the insured.
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Q37.A trucking company stops transporting explosives because the exposure is too severe. Which risk management technique is the company using?
A.Risk avoidanceB.Risk reductionC.Risk sharingD.Risk transfer✓A. Risk avoidanceExplanation: Risk avoidance means eliminating the activity that creates the exposure. By no longer hauling explosives, the company removes that specific risk entirely.
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Q38.A retailer installs sprinklers and trains employees on spill cleanup to lessen both fire and slip-and-fall losses. Which risk management method is this?
A.Risk reductionB.Risk transferC.Risk avoidanceD.Risk retention✓A. Risk reductionExplanation: The retailer is taking steps to reduce both the frequency and severity of losses. The business still faces the exposures, but the controls improve safety and claim outcomes.
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Q39.What is the primary purpose of an endorsement attached to an insurance policy?
A.To cancel the policy automaticallyB.To modify the original policy terms or coverageC.To replace the declarations page entirelyD.To remove the insured's premium obligation✓B. To modify the original policy terms or coverageExplanation: An endorsement changes the policy as originally issued by adding, deleting, or altering coverage or terms. It becomes part of the contract and can broaden or restrict protection.
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Q40.An insured wants to know the policy number, policy period, and coverage limits. In which policy section would this information normally appear?
A.Insuring agreementB.ExclusionsC.DeclarationsD.Conditions✓C. DeclarationsExplanation: The declarations section identifies the insured, the policy number, the policy period, and the limits. It is the summary page of key contract information.
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Q41.Which part of an insurance policy contains the insurer's basic promise to pay covered claims?
A.DeclarationsB.ExclusionsC.Insuring agreementD.Endorsements✓C. Insuring agreementExplanation: The insuring agreement states the insurer's core promise, such as paying for covered loss or defending certain claims. It establishes the broad grant of coverage before exclusions and conditions are applied.
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Q42.A policy does not cover rust, corrosion, and ordinary wear and tear. Which policy component most directly removes that coverage?
A.DeclarationsB.Insuring agreementC.ExclusionsD.Endorsements✓C. ExclusionsExplanation: Exclusions identify losses, property, or causes of loss that the policy does not insure. Wear and tear is commonly excluded because insurance is intended for fortuitous loss, not inevitable deterioration.
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Q43.An insurer purchases reinsurance on a book of policies to limit its own exposure to loss. This transaction is primarily a form of:
A.Risk transferB.Risk avoidanceC.Risk retentionD.Risk duplication✓A. Risk transferExplanation: Reinsurance transfers part of the insurer's risk to another insurer, called the reinsurer. It helps the primary insurer manage capacity and protect itself against unusually large losses.
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Q44.A landlord sells a rental house on Monday, and the house burns on Tuesday before the policy is canceled. Why would the former owner generally have no right to collect under the policy?
A.The peril changed from fire to negligenceB.The former owner no longer had insurable interest at the time of lossC.The insurer automatically cancels all sold-property policies at midnightD.The deductible becomes equal to the value of the property✓B. The former owner no longer had insurable interest at the time of lossExplanation: In property insurance, insurable interest must exist at the time of loss. Once the landlord sold the house, the landlord no longer stood to suffer direct financial loss from damage to it.
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Q45.An insured pays a $700 annual premium, and after a covered fire receives $40,000 from the insurer. Which contract characteristic best explains this unequal exchange?
A.ConditionalB.AleatoryC.PersonalD.Adhesive✓B. AleatoryExplanation: Insurance is an aleatory contract because the values exchanged may be unequal and depend on an uncertain event. A small premium can lead to a large claim payment if a covered loss occurs.
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Q46.Which statement best demonstrates the unilateral nature of an insurance contract?
A.The insurer must pay covered claims after the premium is paidB.The insured must submit at least one claim each policy termC.Both parties must make equal promises to each otherD.Either party may rewrite the policy without consent✓A. The insurer must pay covered claims after the premium is paidExplanation: A unilateral contract involves a legally enforceable promise by only one party, the insurer. The insured is not obligated to suffer a loss or file a claim, but the insurer must perform if covered conditions are met.
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Q47.A store suffers a covered inventory loss of $30,000 but submits a claim for $45,000 in hopes of making a profit. Which principle most directly prevents this from being proper insurance recovery?
A.IndemnityB.ContributionC.EstoppelD.Consideration✓A. IndemnityExplanation: The principle of indemnity limits recovery to the actual amount of covered loss, subject to policy terms. Insurance is not intended to place the insured in a better financial position than before the loss.
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Q48.An agent gives an applicant temporary evidence of coverage while the formal policy is being issued. What is this temporary document called?
A.An endorsementB.A warrantyC.A binderD.A declaration✓C. A binderExplanation: A binder is temporary evidence that coverage is in force until the policy is issued or the application is rejected. It provides short-term protection during the underwriting process.
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Q49.A policy has a $2,500 deductible and a $25,000 limit. The insured suffers a covered loss of $18,000. How much will the insurer pay?
A.$15,500B.$16,000C.$18,000D.$20,500✓A. $15,500Explanation: Because the loss is below the policy limit, the deductible is subtracted from the covered loss. $18,000 minus $2,500 equals a payment of $15,500.
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Q50.A policy has an $80,000 limit and a $1,000 deductible. A covered loss totals $90,000. Assuming no other limitations apply, how much will the insurer pay?
A.$80,000B.$79,000C.$89,000D.$90,000✓B. $79,000Explanation: The insurer will not pay more than the policy limit, and the deductible is borne by the insured. The loss exceeds the limit, so the maximum payable is $80,000 minus the $1,000 deductible, or $79,000.
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Q51.The same building is insured under two policies. Policy A provides $60,000 of coverage and Policy B provides $90,000. If a covered loss is $30,000 and the policies share by contribution according to limits, how much should Policy A pay?
A.$10,000B.$12,000C.$15,000D.$18,000✓B. $12,000Explanation: Total coverage is $150,000, and Policy A provides $60,000 of that amount. Policy A's share is 40%, so it pays 40% of the $30,000 loss, which is $12,000.
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Q52.A loss of $60,000 is covered by three policies with limits of $100,000, $200,000, and $300,000. If the insurers contribute by limits, how much should the $200,000 policy pay?
A.$10,000B.$20,000C.$30,000D.$40,000✓B. $20,000Explanation: The total insurance is $600,000, and the $200,000 policy represents one-third of that total. One-third of a $60,000 loss is $20,000.
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Q53.A retailer keeps a $5,000 reserve for small losses, installs security cameras to deter theft, and buys crime coverage for large losses. Which sequence of risk management methods is being used?
A.Transfer, avoidance, retentionB.Retention, reduction, transferC.Reduction, transfer, avoidanceD.Avoidance, retention, reduction✓B. Retention, reduction, transferExplanation: Keeping a reserve for small losses is retention, installing cameras is reduction, and buying crime insurance is transfer. The scenario uses multiple techniques together to manage different layers of risk.
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Q54.Carla sells her car at 10:00 a.m. The buyer crashes it at 4:00 p.m. that same day before Carla's policy is canceled. Why would Carla generally be unable to recover for damage to that car under her policy?
A.Because Carla no longer had insurable interest at the time of lossB.Because same-day losses are automatically excludedC.Because only collision coverage applies after a saleD.Because the buyer's negligence voids all existing insurance✓A. Because Carla no longer had insurable interest at the time of lossExplanation: Once Carla sold the car, she no longer had a direct financial interest in the vehicle. Without insurable interest at the time of loss, she generally cannot collect for damage to the car.
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Q55.An insurer pays a $25,000 fire claim caused by a negligent electrician and then sues the electrician to recover the amount paid. Which answer best explains both the principle involved and its purpose?
A.Contribution; to divide the loss among multiple insurersB.Subrogation; to shift the loss to the responsible party and prevent double recoveryC.Indemnity; to guarantee the insured a profit after the lossD.Retention; to make the insured absorb the entire loss✓B. Subrogation; to shift the loss to the responsible party and prevent double recoveryExplanation: Subrogation allows the insurer to pursue the negligent third party after indemnifying the insured. Its purpose is to place the ultimate burden on the wrongdoer and keep the insured from recovering twice for the same loss.
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Q56.A policy provision could reasonably be read in two different ways, one favoring coverage and one favoring denial. If the dispute goes to court, which result is most consistent with insurance contract law?
A.The court will always deny coverage because exclusions controlB.The court will rewrite the entire contract based on fairness aloneC.The ambiguity will generally be construed against the insurer because the policy is adhesiveD.The ambiguity will automatically void the policy from inception✓C. The ambiguity will generally be construed against the insurer because the policy is adhesiveExplanation: Because insurance is a contract of adhesion, unclear wording is generally interpreted against the drafter, which is usually the insurer. This rule encourages insurers to use clear language and protects insureds from hidden or uncertain limitations.
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Q57.A bodily injury accident happens on June 1 while an occurrence policy is active. The insured cancels the policy on July 1, and the lawsuit is filed in December. Which statement is correct?
A.The claim is not covered because the suit was filed after cancellationB.The claim is covered because the injury occurred during the policy periodC.The claim is covered only if the insurer renews the policyD.The claim is not covered unless a new claim is made within 30 days✓B. The claim is covered because the injury occurred during the policy periodExplanation: Occurrence coverage is triggered by when the injury or damage happens. Since the accident occurred while the policy was active, that policy generally responds even though the suit was filed after cancellation.
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Q58.An employer intentionally understates payroll on an insurance application to obtain a lower premium. After a loss, the insurer discovers the understatement. Which answer best describes the problem?
A.It is a breach of utmost good faith because a material fact affecting rating was misstatedB.It is acceptable because premium is not part of underwritingC.It is only a morale hazard because no one intended a lossD.It creates contribution rights against another insurer✓A. It is a breach of utmost good faith because a material fact affecting rating was misstatedExplanation: Payroll is a material underwriting and rating factor, so intentionally misstating it violates utmost good faith. A material misrepresentation can affect premium, eligibility, and the insurer's handling of the policy or claim.
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Q59.A farmer stops operating a public corn maze, buys crop insurance, installs lightning rods on a barn, and agrees to absorb the first $1,000 of equipment losses. Which sequence correctly identifies these four risk management techniques in order?
A.Avoidance, transfer, reduction, retentionB.Transfer, reduction, retention, avoidanceC.Reduction, retention, transfer, avoidanceD.Retention, avoidance, transfer, reduction✓A. Avoidance, transfer, reduction, retentionExplanation: Stopping the corn maze is avoidance, buying crop insurance is transfer, installing lightning rods is reduction, and absorbing the first $1,000 is retention. This sequence matches the farmer's actions in the order given.
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Q60.A $12,000 covered loss is shared by three policies with limits of $50,000, $100,000, and $150,000. Under contribution by limits, how much should the $150,000 policy pay?
A.$4,000B.$5,000C.$6,000D.$7,200✓C. $6,000Explanation: The total insurance is $300,000, and the $150,000 policy represents 50% of the total. Fifty percent of a $12,000 loss is $6,000.
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