Sterile Processing Technician Exam
Safety & Regulations Practice Questions
29 practice questions with detailed explanations — aligned to the Sterile Processing Technician Exam.
Q1.Which agency is responsible for regulating worker safety and requires employers to provide Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?
A.FDAB.CDCC.OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)D.AAMIC. OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)Explanation: OSHA is the federal agency dedicated to protecting the health and safety of workers. They mandate the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard and PPE requirements.
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Q2.According to OSHA, eye wash stations must be available within how many seconds of travel time from a potential chemical hazard?
A.10 secondsB.30 secondsC.1 minuteD.5 minutesA. 10 secondsExplanation: OSHA requires suitable emergency eye wash stations to be reachable within 10 seconds (approx. 55 feet) of the hazard for immediate flushing.
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Q3.The 'Right to Know' law refers to the:
A.Patient's right to know who sterilized their instrumentsB.Employee's right to know the salary of their managerC.Hazard Communication Standard (access to SDS for workplace chemicals)D.Right to refuse workC. Hazard Communication Standard (access to SDS for workplace chemicals)Explanation: The Hazard Communication Standard ensures that employers disclose toxic and hazardous substances in workplaces and give employees unrestricted access to Safety Data Sheets (SDS).
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Q4.When lifting heavy instrument sets, the technician should:
A.Bend at the waistB.Lift with their legs, keeping the back straight and the load close to the bodyC.Twist while liftingD.Reach over their headB. Lift with their legs, keeping the back straight and the load close to the bodyExplanation: Proper ergonomics prevents back injury. Lifting with the strong leg muscles and keeping the load close to the center of gravity reduces strain.
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Q5.What is the OSHA Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) for Ethylene Oxide (EtO) over an 8-hour time-weighted average?
A.1 ppm (part per million)B.5 ppmC.10 ppmD.0.5 ppmA. 1 ppm (part per million)Explanation: The OSHA PEL for EtO is 1 ppm over an 8-hour shift. The Action Level (AL) is 0.5 ppm.
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Q6.Which fire extinguisher class is used for electrical fires?
A.Class AB.Class BC.Class CD.Class KC. Class CExplanation: Class C extinguishers use non-conductive agents suitable for energized electrical equipment (Current).
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Q7.Sharps containers must be:
A.Clear plastic bagsB.Puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and labeled biohazard (usually red)C.Cardboard boxesD.Any trash canB. Puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and labeled biohazard (usually red)Explanation: To prevent needlesticks and exposure, sharps must be disposed of in rigid, puncture-resistant containers placed near the point of use.
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Q8.Under the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, employers must offer which vaccine to employees at no cost?
A.InfluenzaB.Hepatitis BC.TetanusD.MeaslesB. Hepatitis BExplanation: Due to the risk of exposure to blood, OSHA requires the Hepatitis B vaccine be offered to at-risk employees within 10 days of assignment.
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Q9.The acronym R.A.C.E. in fire safety stands for:
A.Run, Alert, Call, ExitB.Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/EvacuateC.React, Act, Call, EmergencyD.Remove, Alert, Clear, ExitB. Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/EvacuateExplanation: R.A.C.E. is the standard protocol: Rescue patients, Activate Alarm, Contain fire (close doors), Extinguish or Evacuate.
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Q10.When putting on (donning) PPE, which item is typically put on LAST?
A.GownB.MaskC.GlovesD.Shoe coversC. GlovesExplanation: Gloves are donned last, pulling the cuffs over the sleeves of the gown to create a seal. Order: Gown -> Mask -> Goggles -> Gloves.
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Q11.When removing (doffing) PPE, which item is considered the most contaminated and should be removed FIRST?
A.MaskB.Gloves (or Shoe covers depending on protocol)C.GogglesD.GownB. Gloves (or Shoe covers depending on protocol)Explanation: Gloves (and shoe covers) are the dirtiest. They are removed first to avoid contaminating clean skin/clothes. Order: Gloves -> Goggles -> Gown -> Mask.
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Q12.A 'lockout/tagout' procedure is used to:
A.Lock the sterile storage roomB.Prevent accidental startup of equipment (like sterilizers) during maintenanceC.Tag broken instrumentsD.Secure the case cartsB. Prevent accidental startup of equipment (like sterilizers) during maintenanceExplanation: Lockout/tagout ensures that hazardous energy sources are isolated and rendered inoperative before service is performed to protect the technician.
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Q13.If a chemical splash occurs in the eye, the technician should flush the eye for at least:
A.1 minuteB.5 minutesC.15 minutesD.30 minutesC. 15 minutesExplanation: Standard first aid for chemical splashes to the eye is continuous flushing with tepid water for at least 15 minutes.
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Q14.Which FDA Class of medical devices poses the highest risk and requires Premarket Approval (e.g., heart valves, sterilizers)?
A.Class IB.Class IIC.Class IIID.Class IVC. Class IIIExplanation: Class III devices (implants, life-sustaining devices) pose the highest risk and undergo the strictest regulation. (Note: Most surgical instruments are Class I or II).
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Q15.Blue diamond on the NFPA hazardous material diamond indicates:
A.Fire HazardB.Health HazardC.Reactivity/InstabilityD.Special HazardB. Health HazardExplanation: Blue = Health. Red = Flammability. Yellow = Instability. White = Special/Specific Hazard.
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Q16.Ergonomic fatigue mats in the decontamination area help to:
A.Absorb spillsB.Reduce leg and back strain from standing for long periodsC.Look professionalD.Keep feet warmB. Reduce leg and back strain from standing for long periodsExplanation: Anti-fatigue mats provide cushioning that reduces muscle fatigue and joint pain for staff standing at sinks.
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Q17.If a sharp object (like a scalpel blade) falls on the floor, the technician should:
A.Pick it up with their hands immediatelyB.Use a broom and dustpan or mechanical device (forceps/tongs) to pick it upC.Kick it under the cabinetD.Leave it for environmental servicesB. Use a broom and dustpan or mechanical device (forceps/tongs) to pick it upExplanation: Never pick up broken glass or sharps with hands. Use mechanical means to prevent cut injuries.
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Q18.Which agency registers and regulates chemical disinfectants as pesticides?
A.FDAB.EPAC.OSHAD.CDCB. EPAExplanation: The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates environmental disinfectants and sterilants.
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Q19.To prevent carpal tunnel syndrome, technicians should:
A.Work fasterB.Maintain neutral wrist positions and take frequent breaksC.Use only one handD.Stand on tiptoesB. Maintain neutral wrist positions and take frequent breaksExplanation: Repetitive strain injuries are prevented by maintaining neutral posture and resting muscles.
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Q20.The 'single-use' symbol on a medical device package looks like:
A.A circle with a line through itB.A number 2 with a slash through itC.A green recycling arrowD.A skull and crossbonesB. A number 2 with a slash through itExplanation: The symbol for 'Do Not Reuse' (Single Use Only) is a number 2 inside a circle with a diagonal slash.
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Q21.When handling Glutaraldehyde, the minimum PPE required includes:
A.Gloves onlyB.Gloves, eye protection, and fluid-resistant gown (and good ventilation)C.Mask onlyD.No PPE neededB. Gloves, eye protection, and fluid-resistant gown (and good ventilation)Explanation: Glutaraldehyde is an irritant and sensitizer. Skin and eye protection are mandatory, as is adequate ventilation (10 air exchanges/hour).
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Q22.Medical Device Reporting (MDR) requires facilities to report incidents where a medical device caused death or serious injury to the:
A.Manufacturer and the FDAB.Patient's familyC.Insurance companyD.PoliceA. Manufacturer and the FDAExplanation: The Safe Medical Devices Act requires reporting adverse events (death/serious injury) related to devices to the FDA and the manufacturer.
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Q23.Fingernails for personnel working in sterile processing should be:
A.Long and paintedB.Kept short (1/4 inch or less) and natural (no artificial nails)C.Covered with tapeD.Polished with red nail polishB. Kept short (1/4 inch or less) and natural (no artificial nails)Explanation: Artificial nails and chipped polish can harbor bacteria and fungi. Long nails can puncture gloves.
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Q24.Jewelry (rings, watches, bracelets) in the decontamination area is:
A.Allowed if coveredB.Allowed if cleaned dailyC.ProhibitedD.Allowed on breaksC. ProhibitedExplanation: Jewelry can harbor microorganisms, catch on equipment, and tear gloves. It is prohibited in prep/pack and decon.
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Q25.A 'Latex Allergy' reaction can be triggered by:
A.Breathing airborne powder from latex glovesB.Skin contactC.Mucous membrane contactD.All of the aboveD. All of the aboveExplanation: Latex proteins can cause reactions through direct contact or inhalation (aerosolized on glove powder).
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Q26.A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) indicates a chemical has a pH of 13. This chemical is:
A.AcidicB.NeutralC.Highly AlkalineD.WaterC. Highly AlkalineExplanation: The pH scale ranges from 0-14. 7 is neutral. Below 7 is acidic. Above 7 is alkaline. 13 is highly alkaline (caustic).
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Q27.Which of the following would be considered 'Negligence' in a sterile processing context?
A.Following the IFU exactlyB.Failing to check the detergent level in the washer, resulting in uncleaned instrumentsC.Reporting a broken toolD.Wearing PPEB. Failing to check the detergent level in the washer, resulting in uncleaned instrumentsExplanation: Negligence is the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise in similar circumstances. Failing to ensure cleaning equipment has detergent is negligent.
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Q28.If an instrument is labeled 'Single Use' but the surgeon insists it be resterilized:
A.Do it if the surgeon signs a waiverB.Do it if it looks cleanC.Refuse; single-use devices cannot be reprocessed by the hospital (unless using a validated third-party reprocessor)D.Wash it but don't sterilize itC. Refuse; single-use devices cannot be reprocessed by the hospital (unless using a validated third-party reprocessor)Explanation: Hospitals cannot reprocess Single Use Devices (SUDs) unless they register as a manufacturer with the FDA and validate the process. Third-party reprocessors exist for this, but CS cannot do it in-house.
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Q29.Ergonomically, the 'Power Zone' for lifting and working is:
A.Above the shouldersB.Below the kneesC.Between the shoulders and knees (mid-chest to mid-thigh)D.Behind the backC. Between the shoulders and knees (mid-chest to mid-thigh)Explanation: The Power Zone is where the arms and back can lift the most weight with the least amount of strain.
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