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Sterile Processing Technician Exam

Safety & Regulations Practice Questions

29 practice questions with detailed explanations — aligned to the Sterile Processing Technician Exam.

  1. Q1.Which agency is responsible for regulating worker safety and requires employers to provide Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?

    A.FDA
    B.CDC
    C.OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
    D.AAMI
    COSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)

    Explanation: OSHA is the federal agency dedicated to protecting the health and safety of workers. They mandate the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard and PPE requirements.

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  2. Q2.According to OSHA, eye wash stations must be available within how many seconds of travel time from a potential chemical hazard?

    A.10 seconds
    B.30 seconds
    C.1 minute
    D.5 minutes
    A10 seconds

    Explanation: OSHA requires suitable emergency eye wash stations to be reachable within 10 seconds (approx. 55 feet) of the hazard for immediate flushing.

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  3. Q3.The 'Right to Know' law refers to the:

    A.Patient's right to know who sterilized their instruments
    B.Employee's right to know the salary of their manager
    C.Hazard Communication Standard (access to SDS for workplace chemicals)
    D.Right to refuse work
    CHazard Communication Standard (access to SDS for workplace chemicals)

    Explanation: The Hazard Communication Standard ensures that employers disclose toxic and hazardous substances in workplaces and give employees unrestricted access to Safety Data Sheets (SDS).

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  4. Q4.When lifting heavy instrument sets, the technician should:

    A.Bend at the waist
    B.Lift with their legs, keeping the back straight and the load close to the body
    C.Twist while lifting
    D.Reach over their head
    BLift with their legs, keeping the back straight and the load close to the body

    Explanation: Proper ergonomics prevents back injury. Lifting with the strong leg muscles and keeping the load close to the center of gravity reduces strain.

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  5. Q5.What is the OSHA Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) for Ethylene Oxide (EtO) over an 8-hour time-weighted average?

    A.1 ppm (part per million)
    B.5 ppm
    C.10 ppm
    D.0.5 ppm
    A1 ppm (part per million)

    Explanation: The OSHA PEL for EtO is 1 ppm over an 8-hour shift. The Action Level (AL) is 0.5 ppm.

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  6. Q6.Which fire extinguisher class is used for electrical fires?

    A.Class A
    B.Class B
    C.Class C
    D.Class K
    CClass C

    Explanation: Class C extinguishers use non-conductive agents suitable for energized electrical equipment (Current).

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  7. Q7.Sharps containers must be:

    A.Clear plastic bags
    B.Puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and labeled biohazard (usually red)
    C.Cardboard boxes
    D.Any trash can
    BPuncture-resistant, leak-proof, and labeled biohazard (usually red)

    Explanation: To prevent needlesticks and exposure, sharps must be disposed of in rigid, puncture-resistant containers placed near the point of use.

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  8. Q8.Under the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, employers must offer which vaccine to employees at no cost?

    A.Influenza
    B.Hepatitis B
    C.Tetanus
    D.Measles
    BHepatitis B

    Explanation: Due to the risk of exposure to blood, OSHA requires the Hepatitis B vaccine be offered to at-risk employees within 10 days of assignment.

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  9. Q9.The acronym R.A.C.E. in fire safety stands for:

    A.Run, Alert, Call, Exit
    B.Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate
    C.React, Act, Call, Emergency
    D.Remove, Alert, Clear, Exit
    BRescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate

    Explanation: R.A.C.E. is the standard protocol: Rescue patients, Activate Alarm, Contain fire (close doors), Extinguish or Evacuate.

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  10. Q10.When putting on (donning) PPE, which item is typically put on LAST?

    A.Gown
    B.Mask
    C.Gloves
    D.Shoe covers
    CGloves

    Explanation: Gloves are donned last, pulling the cuffs over the sleeves of the gown to create a seal. Order: Gown -> Mask -> Goggles -> Gloves.

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  11. Q11.When removing (doffing) PPE, which item is considered the most contaminated and should be removed FIRST?

    A.Mask
    B.Gloves (or Shoe covers depending on protocol)
    C.Goggles
    D.Gown
    BGloves (or Shoe covers depending on protocol)

    Explanation: Gloves (and shoe covers) are the dirtiest. They are removed first to avoid contaminating clean skin/clothes. Order: Gloves -> Goggles -> Gown -> Mask.

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  12. Q12.A 'lockout/tagout' procedure is used to:

    A.Lock the sterile storage room
    B.Prevent accidental startup of equipment (like sterilizers) during maintenance
    C.Tag broken instruments
    D.Secure the case carts
    BPrevent accidental startup of equipment (like sterilizers) during maintenance

    Explanation: Lockout/tagout ensures that hazardous energy sources are isolated and rendered inoperative before service is performed to protect the technician.

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  13. Q13.If a chemical splash occurs in the eye, the technician should flush the eye for at least:

    A.1 minute
    B.5 minutes
    C.15 minutes
    D.30 minutes
    C15 minutes

    Explanation: Standard first aid for chemical splashes to the eye is continuous flushing with tepid water for at least 15 minutes.

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  14. Q14.Which FDA Class of medical devices poses the highest risk and requires Premarket Approval (e.g., heart valves, sterilizers)?

    A.Class I
    B.Class II
    C.Class III
    D.Class IV
    CClass III

    Explanation: Class III devices (implants, life-sustaining devices) pose the highest risk and undergo the strictest regulation. (Note: Most surgical instruments are Class I or II).

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  15. Q15.Blue diamond on the NFPA hazardous material diamond indicates:

    A.Fire Hazard
    B.Health Hazard
    C.Reactivity/Instability
    D.Special Hazard
    BHealth Hazard

    Explanation: Blue = Health. Red = Flammability. Yellow = Instability. White = Special/Specific Hazard.

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  16. Q16.Ergonomic fatigue mats in the decontamination area help to:

    A.Absorb spills
    B.Reduce leg and back strain from standing for long periods
    C.Look professional
    D.Keep feet warm
    BReduce leg and back strain from standing for long periods

    Explanation: Anti-fatigue mats provide cushioning that reduces muscle fatigue and joint pain for staff standing at sinks.

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  17. Q17.If a sharp object (like a scalpel blade) falls on the floor, the technician should:

    A.Pick it up with their hands immediately
    B.Use a broom and dustpan or mechanical device (forceps/tongs) to pick it up
    C.Kick it under the cabinet
    D.Leave it for environmental services
    BUse a broom and dustpan or mechanical device (forceps/tongs) to pick it up

    Explanation: Never pick up broken glass or sharps with hands. Use mechanical means to prevent cut injuries.

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  18. Q18.Which agency registers and regulates chemical disinfectants as pesticides?

    A.FDA
    B.EPA
    C.OSHA
    D.CDC
    BEPA

    Explanation: The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates environmental disinfectants and sterilants.

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  19. Q19.To prevent carpal tunnel syndrome, technicians should:

    A.Work faster
    B.Maintain neutral wrist positions and take frequent breaks
    C.Use only one hand
    D.Stand on tiptoes
    BMaintain neutral wrist positions and take frequent breaks

    Explanation: Repetitive strain injuries are prevented by maintaining neutral posture and resting muscles.

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  20. Q20.The 'single-use' symbol on a medical device package looks like:

    A.A circle with a line through it
    B.A number 2 with a slash through it
    C.A green recycling arrow
    D.A skull and crossbones
    BA number 2 with a slash through it

    Explanation: The symbol for 'Do Not Reuse' (Single Use Only) is a number 2 inside a circle with a diagonal slash.

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  21. Q21.When handling Glutaraldehyde, the minimum PPE required includes:

    A.Gloves only
    B.Gloves, eye protection, and fluid-resistant gown (and good ventilation)
    C.Mask only
    D.No PPE needed
    BGloves, eye protection, and fluid-resistant gown (and good ventilation)

    Explanation: Glutaraldehyde is an irritant and sensitizer. Skin and eye protection are mandatory, as is adequate ventilation (10 air exchanges/hour).

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  22. Q22.Medical Device Reporting (MDR) requires facilities to report incidents where a medical device caused death or serious injury to the:

    A.Manufacturer and the FDA
    B.Patient's family
    C.Insurance company
    D.Police
    AManufacturer and the FDA

    Explanation: The Safe Medical Devices Act requires reporting adverse events (death/serious injury) related to devices to the FDA and the manufacturer.

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  23. Q23.Fingernails for personnel working in sterile processing should be:

    A.Long and painted
    B.Kept short (1/4 inch or less) and natural (no artificial nails)
    C.Covered with tape
    D.Polished with red nail polish
    BKept short (1/4 inch or less) and natural (no artificial nails)

    Explanation: Artificial nails and chipped polish can harbor bacteria and fungi. Long nails can puncture gloves.

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  24. Q24.Jewelry (rings, watches, bracelets) in the decontamination area is:

    A.Allowed if covered
    B.Allowed if cleaned daily
    C.Prohibited
    D.Allowed on breaks
    CProhibited

    Explanation: Jewelry can harbor microorganisms, catch on equipment, and tear gloves. It is prohibited in prep/pack and decon.

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  25. Q25.A 'Latex Allergy' reaction can be triggered by:

    A.Breathing airborne powder from latex gloves
    B.Skin contact
    C.Mucous membrane contact
    D.All of the above
    DAll of the above

    Explanation: Latex proteins can cause reactions through direct contact or inhalation (aerosolized on glove powder).

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  26. Q26.A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) indicates a chemical has a pH of 13. This chemical is:

    A.Acidic
    B.Neutral
    C.Highly Alkaline
    D.Water
    CHighly Alkaline

    Explanation: The pH scale ranges from 0-14. 7 is neutral. Below 7 is acidic. Above 7 is alkaline. 13 is highly alkaline (caustic).

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  27. Q27.Which of the following would be considered 'Negligence' in a sterile processing context?

    A.Following the IFU exactly
    B.Failing to check the detergent level in the washer, resulting in uncleaned instruments
    C.Reporting a broken tool
    D.Wearing PPE
    BFailing to check the detergent level in the washer, resulting in uncleaned instruments

    Explanation: Negligence is the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise in similar circumstances. Failing to ensure cleaning equipment has detergent is negligent.

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  28. Q28.If an instrument is labeled 'Single Use' but the surgeon insists it be resterilized:

    A.Do it if the surgeon signs a waiver
    B.Do it if it looks clean
    C.Refuse; single-use devices cannot be reprocessed by the hospital (unless using a validated third-party reprocessor)
    D.Wash it but don't sterilize it
    CRefuse; single-use devices cannot be reprocessed by the hospital (unless using a validated third-party reprocessor)

    Explanation: Hospitals cannot reprocess Single Use Devices (SUDs) unless they register as a manufacturer with the FDA and validate the process. Third-party reprocessors exist for this, but CS cannot do it in-house.

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  29. Q29.Ergonomically, the 'Power Zone' for lifting and working is:

    A.Above the shoulders
    B.Below the knees
    C.Between the shoulders and knees (mid-chest to mid-thigh)
    D.Behind the back
    CBetween the shoulders and knees (mid-chest to mid-thigh)

    Explanation: The Power Zone is where the arms and back can lift the most weight with the least amount of strain.

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